UGC NET Solved Paper - I June 2014

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1.    Which of the following are Central Universities ?
1.    Pondicherry University
2.    Vishwa Bharati
3.    H.N.B. Garhwal University
4.    Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 3       (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4       (D) 1,2 and 4

2.    Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
i.    Rajasthan   receives   the   highest solar radiation in the country.
ii.   India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii.  The maximum amount of wind power is contributed  by TamilNadu.
iv.  The primary source   of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
Codes:
(A) i and ii    (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii    (D) i and iv

3.    Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the Planning Commission ?
(A)    Chairman
(B)    Deputy Chairman
(C)    Minister of State for Planning
(D)    Member Secretary

4.    Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A)  Union List

(B)  State List
(C)  Concurrent List
(D)  Residuary Powers
 

5.    Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
                  (ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
Codes:
(A)    Only argument (i) is strong.
(B)    Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C)    Both the arguments are strong.
(D)    Neither of the arguments is strong.

6.    Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ?
(A)    Assam University
(B)    Delhi University
(C)    Hyderabad University
(D)    Pondicherry University

7.    Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ?
1.    Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2.    The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3.    The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4.    The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 4       (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3       (D) 1,2, 3 and 4

8.    The e-content generation for under-graduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(A)    INFLIBNET
(B)    Consortium for Educational Communication
(C)    National Knowledge Commission
(D)    Indira Gandhi National Open University

9.    Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A)    effective
(B)    cognitive
(C)    affective
(D)    selective

10.    Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A)    Students asking questions
(B)    Maximum    attendance    of   the students
(C)    Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D)    Students taking notes

11.    Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A)    Lecture
(B)    Discussion
(C)    Demonstration
(D)    Narration

12.    Dyslexia is associated with
(A)    mental disorder
(B)    behavioural disorder
(C)    reading disorder
(D)    writing disorder

13.    The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A)    positive paradigm
(B)    critical paradigm
(C)    natural paradigm
(D)    interpretative paradigm

14.    Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling ?
(A)    Simple random
(B)    Purposive
(C)    Systematic
(D)    Stratified

15.    Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement      (B) Diagnostic     (C) Formative      (D) Summative

16.    The research stream of immediate application is
(A)    Conceptual research
(B)    Action research
(C)    Fundamental research
(D)    Empirical research

17.    Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A)    Peter Haggett
(B)    Von Thunen
(C)    Thomas Kuhn
(D)    John K. Wright

18.    In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A)    the appendix
(B)    a separate chapter
(C)    the concluding chapter
(D)    the text itself

19.    A thesis statement is
(A)    an observation
(B)    a fact
(C)    an assertion
(D)    a discussion

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 20 to 24 : 

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the 'State', The Indian 'State's' special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word 'State' above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state 'sovereignty' or of any church-and-state dichotomy.

Modern Indian 'secularism' has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India's famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More's Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.

20.    The basic construction of Thomas More's Utopia was inspired by
(A)    Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B)    Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C)    Social inequality in India.
(D)    European perception of Indian State.

21.    What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State           (B)    Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values    (D)   Absence of Bigotry

22.    Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A)    Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B)    Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C)    Social integration of all groups
(D)    Cultural assimilation of all social groups.

23.    The author uses the word 'State' to highlight
(A)    Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
(B)    Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C)    The concept of state sovereignty.
(D)    Dependence on religion.

24.    Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian 'Secularism' ?
(A)    No discrimination on religious considerations
(B)    Total indifference to religion
(C)    No space for social identity
(D)    Disregard for social law

25.    Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish    (B) secure (C) decode    (D) change

26.    The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as
(A) sparks (B) green dots
(C) snow   (D) rain drops

27.    In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
(A) noise             (B) audience
(C) criticality       (D) feedback

28.    Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A)    Short circuit
(B)    Contradiction
(C)    Unevenness
(D)    Entropy

29.    The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(A)    Technological theory
(B)    Dispersion theory
(C)    Minimal effects theory
(D)    Information theory

30.    The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A) KaranJohar           (B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle        (D) Gulzar

31.    Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ...........by choosing one of the following option given:
(A) TS    (B) ST
(C) RS    (D) SR

32.    A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house ?
(A) 3 km          (B) 4 km 
(C) 5 km          (D) 6 km

33.    In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of  rs7, rs 8, rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19    (B) 20
(C) 23    (D) 29

34.    In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE ?
(A)    OMESUCEM
(B)    OMESICSM
(C)    OMESICEM
(D)    OMESISCM

35.     If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22,.... is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series ?
(A) 31   (B) 32
(C) 33   (D) 35

36.    If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called
(A)    contradictory
(B)    contrary
(C)    sub-contrary
(D)    subaltern

37.    One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written ?
(A) 32    (B) 36
(C) 40    (D) 38

38.    "If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength."   The   argument  put   above  may  be called as
(A) Analogical     (B) Deductive
(C) Statistical       (D) Causal

39.    Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A)    The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B)    The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C)    The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D)    The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.

40. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians, p, q, r, s ... represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.

Codes:
(A)    q and s only
(B)    s only
(C)    s and r only
(D)    p, q and s only

41. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
Premises:
(a)    All dogs are mammals.
(b)    No cats are dogs. 

Conclusions:
(i)     No cats are mammals.
(ii)    Some cats are mammals.
(iii)    No dogs are cats.
(iv)     No dogs are non-mammals.
Codes:
(A) (i) only           (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)    (D) (ii) and (iii)

Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions from 42 to 46 : Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)

Year	government canals	private canals	Tanks	Tube wells & other wells	Other sources	Total
1997-98	17117	211	2593	32090	3102	55173
1998-99	17093	212	2792	33988	3326	57411
1999-00	16842	194	2535	34623	2915	57109
2000-01	15748	203	2449	33796	2880	55076
2001-02	15031	209	2179	34906	4347	56672
2002-03	13863	206	1802	34250	3657	53778
2003-04	14444	206	1908	35779	4281	56618
2004-05	14696	206	1727	34785	7453	58867
2005-06	15268	207	2034	35372	7314	60196

42.    Identify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(A)    Government canals
(B)    Private canals
(C)    Tube wells and other wells
(D)    Other sources

43.    In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99    (B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03    (D) 2004-05

44.    Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A)    Government canals
(B)    Private canals
(C)    Tanks
(D)    Other sources

45.    Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered die maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A)    Government canals
(B)    Tanks
(C)    Tube wells and other wells
(D)    Other sources

46.    In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99    (C) 2003-04
(B) 2000-01    (D) 2005-06

47.    When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM               (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM        (D) TCP

48.    Which one of the following is not. the same as the other three ?
(A)    MAC address
(B)    Hardware address
(C)    Physical address
(D)    IP address

49.    Identify   the   IP   address   from   the following :
(A)    300-215 -317-3
(B)    302-215@ 417 -5
(C)    202 . 50 . 20 . 148
(D)    202-50-20-148

50.    The acronym FTP stands for
(A)    File Transfer Protocol
(B)    Fast Transfer Protocol
(C)    File Tracking Protocol
(D)    File Transfer Procedure

51.    Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG    (B) GIF
(C) BMP    (D) GUI

52.    The first web browser is
(A)    Internet Explorer
(B)    Netscape
(C)    World Wide Web
(D)    Firefox

53.    'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving
(A)    eruption   of   large   amount   of material
(B)    strong winds
(C)    strong water waves
(D)    strong winds and water waves

54.    The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 x 106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A)    54 million metric tons
(B)    540 million metric tons
(C)    5400 million metric tons
(D)    2400 million metric tons

55.    Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times ?
(A)    Paris
(B)    London
(C)    Los Angeles
(D)    Beijing

56.    The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A)    run-off urban areas
(B)    run-off from agricultural forms
(C)    sewage effluents
(D)    industrial effluents

57.    Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere ?
(A)    Chlorofluorocarbon
(B)    Carbon dioxide
(C)    Methane
(D)    Nitrous oxide

58.    In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of per-industrial times by
(A)    1.5°C     to  2°C
(B)    2.0 °C    to  3.5 °C
(C)    0.5°C     to  l0°C
(D)    0.25 °C  to 0.5 °C

59.    The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(A)    Environment
(B)    Water Resources
(C)    Home Affairs
(D)    Defense

60.    Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List -1                    List - II
a.    Flood             1.   Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
b.    Drought          2.   Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
c.    Earthquake     3.   A    vent    through which    molted substances come out
d.    Volcano          4.   Excess    rain    and uneven   distribution of water
Codes:          
             a    b    c    d
(A)       4    1    2    3
(B)       2    3    4    1
(C)        3    4    2    1
(D)       4    3    1    2

 

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II Dec2013

UGC NET December 2013 Solved question paper -II

1. When data and acknowledgement are sent in the same frame, this is called as
(A) Piggy packing
(B) Piggy backing
(C) Back packing
(D) Good packing

2. Encryption and Decryption is the responsibility of Layer.
(A) Physical
(B) Network
(C) Application
(D) Datalink

3. An analog signal carries 4 bits in each signal unit. If 1000 signal units are sent per second, then baud rate and bit rate of the signal are and
(A) 4000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps
(B) 2000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps
(C) 1000 bauds \ sec & 500 bps
(D) 1000 bauds \ sec & 4000 bps

4. The VLF and LF bauds use propagation for communication.
(A) Ground          (B) Sky
(C) Line of sight   (D) Space

5. Using the RSA public key crypto system, if p = 13, q = 31 and d = 7, then the value of e is
(A) 101  (C) 105
(B) 103  (D) 107

6. FAN IN of a component A is defined as
(A) Number of components that can call or pass control to component A.
(B) Number of components that are called by component A.
(C) Number of components related to component A.
(D) Number of components dependent on component A.

7. The relationship of data elements in a module is called
(A) Coupling
(B) Modularity
(C) Cohesion
(D) Granularity

8. Software Configuration Management is the discipline for systematically controlling
(A) the changes due to the evolution of work products as the project proceeds.
(B) the changes due to defects (bugs) being found and then fixed.
(C) the changes due to requirement changes
(D) all of the above

9. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering ?
(A) Requirement elicitation
(B) Requirement analysts
(C) Requirement design
(D) Requirement documentation

10. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is called
(A) Alpha testing
(B) Beta testing
(C) Regression testing
(D) None of the above

11. The student marks should not be greater than 100. This is
(A) Integrity constraint
(B) Referential constraint
(C) Over-defined constraint
(D) Feasible constraint

12. GO  BOTTOM  and  SKIP-3 commands are given one after another in a database file of 30 records. It shifts the control to
(A) 28th record      (B) 27th record
(C) 3rd record       (D) 4th record

13. An ER Model includes
I.   An ER diagram portraying entity types.
II.  Attributes for each entity type
III. Relationships among entity types.
IV.  Semantic integrity constraints that reflects the business rules about data not captured in the ER diagram.
(A) I, II, III & IV   (B) I&IV
(C) I, II & IV        (D) I & III

14. Based on the cardinality ratio and participation associated with a relationship type, choose either the Foreign Key Design, the Cross Referencing Design or Mutual Referencing Design.
(A) Entity    (B) Constraints
(C) Rules    (D) Keys

15. Data Integrity control uses  
(A) Upper and lower limits on numeric data.
(B) Passwords to prohibit unauthorised access to files.
(C) Data dictionary to keep the data
(D) Data dictionary to find last access of data

16. What does the following declaration mean ?
int (*ptr) [10];
(A) ptr is an array of pointers of 10 integers.
(B) ptr is a pointer to an array of 10 integers.
(C) ptr is an array of 10 integers.
(D) none of the above.

17. Which of the following has compilation error in C ?
(A) int n = 32 ;
(B) char ch = 65 ;
(C) float f= (float) 3.2;
(D) none of the above

18. Which of the following operators can not be overloaded in C+ + ?
(A) *     (B) + =
(C) = =     (D) ::

19. allows to create classes which are derived from other classes, so that they automatically include some of its "parent's" members, plus its own members.
(A) Overloading
(B) Inheritance
(C) Polymorphism
(D) Encapsulation

20. The correct way to round off a floating number x to an integer value is
(A) y = (int)(.r + 0.5)
(B) y = int (x + 0.5)
(C) y = (int)*+ 0.5
(D) y = (int)((im> + 0.5)

21. What is the value of the postfix expression ?
a b c d + - * (where a = 8, b = 4, c = 2 and d = 5)
(A) -3/8    (B) -8/3
(C) 24        (D) -24

22. If the queue is implemented with a linked list, keeping track of a front pointer and a rear pointer, which of these pointers will change during an insertion into a non-empty queue ?
(A) Neither of the pointers change
(B) Only front pointer changes
(C) Only rear pointer changes
(D) Both of the pointers changes

23. _________ is often used to prove the correctness of a recursive function.
(A) Diagonaliization
(B) Communitivity
(C) Mathematical Induction
(D) Matrix Multiplication

24. For any B-tree of minimum degree t > 2, every node other than the root must have atleast _________ keys and every   node can have at, most ________ keys.
(A) t-1,2t+1
(B) t+1,2t+1
(C) t-1,2t-1
(D) t+1,2t-1

25. Given two sorted list of size 'm' and 'n' respectively. The number of comparison needed in the worst case
by the merge sort algorithm will be
(A) m x n
(B) max (m, n)
(C) min (m, n)
(D) m + n - 1

26. Given the following statements :
S, :    SLR uses follow information to guide reductions. In case of LR and LALR parsers, the look-aheads are associated with the items and they make use of the left context available to the parser.
S2 : LR grammar is a larger sub¬class of context free grammar as compared to that SLR and LALR grammars.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.

27. The context  free grammar for the language
L = {an bm | n < m + 3, n > 0, in > 0} is
(A)   S -» aaa A; A -» aAb | B, B -> Bb | X ,;, 
(B)    S -* aaaA|X, A -> aAb | B, B -*Bb f X
(C)    S -> aaaA | aa A | X, A -> aAb | B, B ~* Bb| k
(D)    S -> aaaA | aa A | aA | X, A -> aAb i B, B -» Bb | X

28. Given the following statements :
S1 :    If L is a regular language then the language {uv | u e L, v e LR} is also regular.
S2 :    L = {wwR}| is regular language.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.

29. The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting the code and data in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called    ____________
(A) Symbol resolution
(B) Parsing
(C) Assembly
(D) Relocation

30. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string ? The input is scanned from left to right.
(A) Leftmost derivation
(B) Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse
(C) Rightmost derivation traced out in reverse
(D) Rightmost derivation

31. The dual of a Boolean expression is obtained by interchanging
(A) Boolean sums and Boolean products
(B) Boolean sums and Boolean products or interchanging 0's and 1 's
(C) Boolean sums and Boolean products and interchanging 0's & 1's
(D) Interchanging 0's and 1's

32. Given that (292) 10 = (1204)^ in some number system x. The base x of that number system is
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) None of the above

33. The sum of products expansion for the function
F(x, y, z) = (x + y)z is given as
(A) xyz + xyz + xyz
(B) xyz + xyz + xyz
(C) xyz + xyz + xyz
(D) xyz + xyz + xyz

34. Let P(m, n) be the statement
    "m divides n" where the universe of    discourse for both the variables is the set of positive integers.  Determine the truth values of each of the following propositions:
    I:   VmVnP(m,n),
    II. 3m Vn P(m, n)
(A) Both I and II are true
(B) Both I and II are false
(C) I - false & II - true
(D) I - true & II - false

35. Big - 0 estimate for
    f(x) = (x + 1) log(x2 + 1) + 3x2 is given as
(A) O(xlogx)
(B) O(x2)
(C) O(x3)
(D) O(x2logx)

36. How many edges are there in a forest of t-trees containing a total of n vertices ?
(A) n+1
(B) n-t
(C) n*t
(D) nt

37. Let f and g be the functions from the set of integers to the set integers defined by
f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = 3x + 2
Then the composition of f and g and g and f is given as
(A) 6x + 7,  6x + 11
(B) 6x + 11, 6x + 7
(C) 5x + 5, 5x + 5
(D) None of the above

38. If n and r are non-negative integers and n > r, then p(n + 1, r) equals to
(A) P(n,r)(n + 1) / (n + 1 - r)
(B) P(n,r)(n+1) / (n - 1 + r)
(C) p(n,r)(n-l) / (n + 1 - r)
(D) p(n,r)(n + l) / (n + 1 + r)

39. A graph is non-planar if and only if it contains a subgraph homomorphic to
(A) K3,2 or K5       (B) K3,3 and K6
(C) K3,3 or K5       (D) K2,3 and K5

40. Which of the following statements are true ?
I.   A circuit that adds two bits, producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called half adder.
II.  A circuit that adds two bits, producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called full adder.
III. A circuit that adds two bits and a carry bit producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called full adder.
IV.  A device that accepts the value of a Boolean variable as input and produces its complement is called an inverter.
(A) I & II    (B) II & III
(C) I,II,III    (D) I,III & IV

41 Active X controls are Pentium binary programs that can be embedded in ____________
(A) Word pages
(B) URL pages
(C) Script pages
(D) Web pages

42.    Match the following :
List-I                                                       List - II
a. Wireless Application Environment      i.    HTTP      
b. Wireless Transaction Protocol           ii.    IP
c. Wireless Datagram Protocol             iii    Scripts
d. Wireless                                          iv.    UDP
Codes :      
     a     b     c    d
(A) ii    iv     i    iii
(B) iv    iii     ii    i
(C) iv    iii     i    ii
(D) iii    i     iv    ii

43. Which of the following is widely used inside the telephone system for long-haul data traffic ?
(A) ISDN
(B) ATM
(C) Frame Relay
(D) ISTN

44. The document standards for EDI were first developed by large business house during the 1970s and are now under the control of the following standard organisation :
(A) ISO
(B) ANSI
(C) ITU-T
(D) IEEE

45. Electronic Data Interchange Software consists of the following four layers :
(A) Business application, Internal format conversion, Network translator, EDI envelope
(B) Business application, Internal format conversion, EDI translator, EDI envelope
(C) Application layer, Transport layer, EDI translator, EDI envelope
(D) Application layer, Transport layer, IP layer, EDI envelope

46. Consider a preemptive priority based scheduling algorithm based on dynamically changing priority.
Larger priority number implies higher priority. When the process is waiting for CPU in the ready queue
(but not yet started execution), its priority changes at a rate a = 2. When it starts running, its priority changes at a rate b = 1. All the processes are assigned priority value 0 when they enter ready queue. Assume that the following processes want to execute :
Process      Arrival  Service
ID          Time    Time
PI        0     4
P2        1     1
P3        2     2
P4        3     1
The time quantum q = 1. When two processes want to join ready queue simultaneously, the process which has not executed recently is given priority. The finish time of processes PI, P2, P3 and P4 will respectively be
(A) 4, 5, 7 and 8
(B) 8, 2, 7 and 5
(C) 2, 5, 7 and 8
(D) 8, 2, 5 and 7

47. The virtual address generated by a CPU is 32 bits. The Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) can hold
total 64 page table entries and a 4-way set associative (i.e. with 4- cache lines in the set). The page size
is 4 KB. The minimum size of TLB tag is
(A) 12 bits
(B) 15 bits
(C) 16 bits
(D) 20 bits

48. Consider a disk queue with request for input/output to block on cylinders
98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, 67
in that order. Assume that disk head is initially positioned at cylinder 53 and moving towards cylinder number 0. The total number of head movements using Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF) and SCAN algorithms are respectively
(A) 236 and 252 cylinders
(B) 640 and 236 cylinders
(C) 235 and 640 cylinders
(D) 235 and 252 cylinders

49. How much space will be required to store the bit map of a 1.3 GB disk with 512 bytes block size ?
(A) 332.8 KB
(B) 83.6 KB
(C) 266.2 KB
(D) 256.6 KB

50. Linux operating system uses
(A) Affinity Scheduling
(B) Fair Preemptive Scheduling
(C) Hand Shaking
(D) Highest Penalty Ratio Next

UGC NET Solved Paper - I Dec2013

UGC NET December 2013 Solved question paper - I

1. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council  (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

2. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment  and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A)   l and 3        (B)    l and 2
(C)   l,2 and 4     (D)   2,3 and 4

3. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction 
(D) Writ Jurisdiction 

4. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A)    1 and 3 only     (B)   2 and 4 only (C)   2, 3 and 4 only  (D)   1, 2, 3 and 4

5. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission ?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of  Rs 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
 Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

6. Who among the following conducted  the CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu

7. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A)   EKNJFTGP  (B)  EJKNFTGP    (C)  KNJFGTP     (D)  None of these

8. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7 whereas that of a mango is Rs 5/-. If the person has Rs 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A)    1    (B)    2
(C)    3    (D)   4

9.  A man pointing to a lady said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife". The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mother's sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law

10. In this series 6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7,1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each ?
(A)   4  (B)    5
(C)   6  (D)    8

11. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A)    85           (B)    60
(C)    70           (D)   65

12. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as  Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years

13. Which of the following is a social network ?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter

14.The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 15 to 20 :

Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Center for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO's assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organization with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long wav to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps over emphasize. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilized by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially Eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

15. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO's assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI's measures to protect the monuments

16. The inter-govemment organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration

17. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be

(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organizations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India's meaningful assistance. 

18. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of  protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to

(A)    10 percent        (B)    11 percent        (C)    12 percent    (D)   13 percent

19. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?

(i)   There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.

(ii)   Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.

(iii)  Force the government to provide sufficient funds.

(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.

Choose correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (i) (ii), (iii ,(iv) 

(B) (i). (ii) (iv) 

(C) (i), (ii)

(D) (i), (iii), (iv)

20. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full  form of INTACH is

(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.

(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

21. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a  teacher should

(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.

(B) punish   those    causing disturbance.

(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.

(D) not bother of what is happening in the class.

22. Effective teaching is a function of

(A) Teacher's satisfaction.

(B) Teacher's honesty  and commitment.

(C) Teacher's making students learn and understand.

(D) Teacher's liking for professional excellence.

23. The most appropriate meaning of learning is

(A) Acquisition of skills

(B) Modification of behaviour

(C) Personal adjustment

(D) Inculcation of knowledge

24. Arrange the following teaching  process in order:

(i) Relate  the present knowledge with previous one

(ii) Evaluation

(iii) Reteaching

(iv) Formulating instructional objectives

(v) Presentation of instructional materials

(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(B) (ii), (i). (iii), (iv), (v)

(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)

(D) (iv), (i), (v). (ii), (iii)

25.CIET stands for

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology

(C) Central Institute for Education Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.

26. Teacher's  role  at  higher  education level is to

(A) provide information to students.

(B) promote self learning in students.

(C) encourage healthy competition among students.

(D) help students to solve their problems.

27.The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by

(A) German Social Scientists

(B) American Philosophers

(C) British Academicians

(D) Italian Political Analysts

28.The sequential operations in scientific research are

(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation

(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations

(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation

(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation,Generalisation, Co-variation.

29. In sampling, the lottery method is used for

(A) Interpretation

(B) Theorisation

(C) Conceptualisation

(D) Randomisation

30. Which is the main objective of research ?

(A) To review the literature

(B) To summarize what is already known

(C) To get an academic degree

(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

31.Sampling error decreases with the

(A) decrease in sample size

(B) increase in sample size

(C) process of randomization

(D) process of analysis

32. The principles of fundamental research are used in

(A) action research

(B) applied research

(C) philosophical research

(D) historical research

33. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as

(A) Passive audience

(B) Active audience

(C) Positive audience

(D) Negative audience

34. Classroom   communication   can   be described as

(A) Exploration

(B) Institutionalisation

(C) Unsignified

(D) Discourse

35. Ideological codes shape our collective

(A) Productions

(B) Perceptions

(C) Consumptions

(D) Creations

36. In communication, myths but are have power

(A) uncultural.  

(B) insignificant.

(C) imprecise.

(D) unpreferred

37. The first multi- lingual news agency of India was

(A) Samachar

(B) API

(C) Hindustan Samachar

(D) Samachar Bharati

38.Organisational communication can also be equated with

(A) intra-personal communication.

(B) inter-personal communication.

(C) group communication.

(D) mass communication.

39. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called

(A) Contradictory

(B) Contrary

(C) Sub-contrary

(D) Sub-alternation

40. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does.Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali ?

(A) Archana

(B) Bulbul

(C) Ananya

(D) Krishna

41.A stipulative definition may be said to be

(A) Always true

(B) Always false

(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false

(D) Neither true nor false

42.When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called

(A) Circular argument

(B) Inductive argument

(C) Deductive argument

(D) Analogical argument

43.Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is.What type of argument is contained in the above passage ?

(A)    Deductive     (B)    Astrological

(C)    Analogical    (D)   Mathematical

44. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.

Premises:

(i)     All saints are religious, (major)

(ii)    Some honest persons are saints. (minor)

Codes :

(A) All saints are honest.

(B) Some saints are honest.

(C) Some honest persons are religious.

(D) All religious persons are honest

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 45 to 48 based on this table.

	Number of Foreign Tourist Arrivals
	2007	2008	2009
Western Europe	1686083	1799525	1610086
North America	1007276	1027297	1024469
South Asia	982428	1051846	982633
South East Asia	303475	332925	348495
East Asia	352037	355230	318292
West Asia	171661	215542	201110
Total FTAs in India	5081504	5282603	5108579

45.Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia

46. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia

47.out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia

48. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia

49. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society

50. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns

51. Internal communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS

52. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films

53. The first virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu

54. Arrange   the   following   books   in chronological   order  in  which  they appeared. Use the code given below:
(i)   Limits to Growth
(ii)  Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv)  Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

55. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification ?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America

56. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this ?
(A)    Realist    (B)  Essentialist    (C)  Feminist      (D) Deep ecology

57. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests ?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

58. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the
following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach

59. The major source of the pollutant gas,carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector

60. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A)   Methane      (B)    Hydrogen
(C)    LPG           (D)   CNG