UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II June 2015

1. How many strings of 5 digits have the property that the sum of their digits is 7 ? 

(1) 66 (2) 330 (3) 495 (4) 99 

2. Consider an experiment of tossing two fair dice, one black and one red. What is the probability that the number on the black die divides the number on red die ? 

(1) 22/36 (2) 12/36  (3) 14/36  (4) 6/36 

3. In how many ways can 15 indistinguishable fish be placed into 5 different ponds, so that each pond contains atleast one fish ? 

(1) 1001 (2) 3876 (3) 775  (4) 200 

4. Consider the following statements : 

(a) Depth - first search is used to traverse a rooted tree. 

(b) Pre - order, Post-order and Inorder are used to list the vertices of an ordered rooted tree. 

(c) Huffman's algorithm is used to find an optimal binary tree with given weights. 

(d) Topological sorting provides a labelling such that the parents have larger labels than their children. 

Which of the above statements are true ?

(1) (a)and(b)

(2) (c) and (d) 

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

5. Consider a Hamiltonian Graph (G) with no loops and parallel edges. 

Which of the following is true with respect to this Graph (G) ? 

(a) deg(v)≥ n/2 for each vertex of G 

(b) |E(G)|≥ l/2(n-1)(n-2)+ 2edges 

(c) deg (v) + deg (w) ≥ n for every v and co not connected by an edge 

(1) (a)and(b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a), (b) and (c) 

 6. Consider the following statements : 

(a) Boolean expressions and logic networks correspond to labelled acyclic digraphs. 

(b) Optimal boolean expressions may not correspond to simplest networks. 

(c) Choosing essential blocks first in a Karnaugh map and then greedily choosing the largest remaining blocks to cover may not give an optimal expression. 

Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ? 

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only 

(3) (a)and(b)

(4) (a), (b) and (c) 

7. Consider a full - adder with the following input values : 

(a) x = l, y = 0 and C_i (carry input) = 0 

(b) x = 0,y = l and C_i = l 

Compute the values of S(sum) and C_o(carry output) for the above input values. 

(1) S = l, C_o =0 and S= 0, C_o=l    (2) S = 0,C_o =0 and S= l, C_o =1 

(3) S = l, C_o = l and S= 0, C_o= 0  (4) S = 0,C_o = l and S= l, C_o = 0  

8. "If my computations are correct and I pay the electric bill, then I will run out of money. If I don't pay the electric bill, the power will be turned off. Therefore, if I don't run out of money and the power is still on, then my computations are incorrect."
Convert this argument into logical notations using the variables c, b, r, p for propositions of computations, electric bills, out of money and the power respectively. (Where ¬ means NOT) 

(1) if (c∧b)→r and ¬b→¬p, then (¬r∧p)→¬c 

(2) if (c∨b)→r and ¬b→¬p, then (r∧P)→c 

(3) if (c∧b)→r and ¬p→¬b, then (¬r∨p)→¬c 

(4) if (c∨b)→r and ¬b→¬p, then (¬r∧p)→¬c 

 9. Match the following : 

List-I                                                      List - II 

(a) (p→q)⇔(¬q→¬p)                         (i) Contrapositive 

(b) [(p∧q)→r]⇔[p→(q→r)]              (ii) Exportation law 

(C) (p→q)⇔[(p∧¬q)→o]                  (iii) Reductio ad absurdum 

(d) (p↔q)⇔[(p→q)∧(q→p)              (iv) Equivalence 

Codes : 

     (a) (b) (c) (d) 

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 

(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 

10. Consider a proposition given as: 

" x≥ 6, if x²≥ 25 and its proof as: 

If x≥6, then x² = x.x≥6-6 = 36≥25 

Which of the following is correct w.r.to the given proposition and its proof ? 

(a) The proof shows the converse of what is to be proved. 

(b) The proof starts by assuming what is to be shown. 

(c) The proof is correct and there is nothing wrong. 

(1) (a) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) 
(4) (b) only 

11. What is the output of the following program ? 

(Assume that the appropriate preprocessor directives are included and there is no syntax error) 

main () { 

 charS[]='ABCDEFGH"; 

 printf ("%C", * (& S[3])); 

 printf ("%s",S+ 4); 

 printf ("%u", S);

 /* Base address of S is 1000 */ } 

(1) ABCDEFGH1000

(2) CDEFGH1000 

(3) DDEFGHH1000

(4) DEFGH1000 

12. Which of the following, in C++, is inherited in a derived class from base class ? 

(1) constructor (2) destructor (3) data members (4) virtual methods 

13. Given that x = 7.5, j = P1.0, n = 1.0, m = 2.0 thevalueofPPx I j==x>n> = mis: 

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 

14. Which of the following is incorrect in C++ ? 

(1) When we write overloaded function we must code the function for each usage. 

(2) When we write function template we code the function only once. 

(3) It is difficult to debug macros 

(4) Templates are more efficient than macros 

15. When the inheritance is private, the private methods in base class are in the derived class (in C++). 

(1) inaccessible (2) accessible (3) protected (4) public 

 16. An Assertion is a predicate expressing a condition we wish database to always satisfy. The correct syntax for Assertion is: 

(1) CREATE ASSERTION 'ASSERTION Name' CHECK 'Predicate' 

(2) CREATE ASSERTION 'ASSERTION Name' 

(3) CREATE ASSERTION, CHECK Predicate 

(4) SELECT ASSERTION 

17. Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock ? 

(a) z - phase Locking 

(b) Time stamp - ordering 

(1) Both (a) and (b)

(2) (a) only 

(3) (b)only

(4) Neither (a) nor (b) 

18. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a Table referenced by constraint. 

(a) Primary key 

 (b) Sub key

(c) Super key

(d) Foreign key 

(1) (a)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) 

(3) (d)

(4) (a) and (d) 

19. Database applications were built directly on top of file system to overcome the following drawbacks of using file-systems: 

(a) Data redundancy and inconsistency 

(b) Difficulty in accessing Data 

(c) Data isolation 

(d) Integrity problems 

(1) (a)

(2) (a) and (d) 

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

20. For a weak entity set to be meaningful, it must be associated combination with some of their attribute values, is called as : 

(1) Neighbour Set (2) Strong Entity Set (3) Owner Entity Set (4) Weak Set 

21. Consider the given graph Its Minimum Cost Spanning Tree is . 

             

Ans: (2)

22. The inorder and preorder Traversal of binary Tree are dbeafcg and abdecfg respectively. The post-order Traversal is . 

(1)  dbefacg (2) debfagc (3) dbefcga (4) debfgca 

23. Level order Traversal of a rooted Tree can be done by starting from root and performing : 

(1) Breadth First Search (2) Depth First Search (3) Root Search (4) Deep Search 

 24. The average case occurs in the Linear Search Algorithm when : 

(1) The item to be searched is in some where middle of the Array 

(2) The item to be searched is not in the array 

(3) The item to be searched is in the last of the array 

(4) The item to be searched is either in the last or not in the array 

25. To determine the efficiency of an algorithm the time factor is measured by : 

(1) Counting micro seconds

(2) Counting number of key operations 

(3) Counting number of statements 

(4) Counting kilobytes of algorithm 

26. Which of the following protocols is an application layer protocol that establishes, manages and terminates multimedia sessions ? 

(1) Session Maintenance Protocol 

(2) Real - time Streaming Protocol 

(3) Real - time Transport Control Protocol 

(4) Session Initiation Protocol

 27. Match the following port numbers with their uses : 

 List-I                                        List-II 

(a) 23                                (i) World wide web 

(b) 25                                (ii) Remote Login 

(c) 80                                (iii) USENET news 

(d) 119                              (iv) E-mail 

Codes : 

      (a) (b) (c) (d) 

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 

28. Which of the following is not associated with the session layer ? 

(1) Dialog control (2) Token management (3) Semantics of the information transmitted (4) Synchronization 

29. What is the size of the 'total length' field in IPv 4 datagram ? 

(1) 4 bits (2) 8 bits (3) 16 bits (4) 32 bits 

30. Which of the following is/are restriction(s) in classless addressing ? 

(1) The number of addresses needs to be a power of 2. 

(2) The mask needs to be included in the address to define the block. 

(3) The starting address must be divisible by the number of addresses in the block. 

(4) All of the above 

31. Match the following : 

(a) Forward Reference Table          (i) Assembler directive 

(b) Mnemonic Table                       (ii) Uses array data structure 

(c) Segment Register Table             (iii) Contains machine OP code  

(d) EQU                                         (iv) Uses linked list data structure

Codes : 

     (a) (b) (c) (d) 

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 

(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 

32. The translator which performs macro calls expansion is called : 

(1) Macro processor (2) Micro pre - processor (3) Macro pre - processor (4) Dynamic Linker 

33. If all the production rules have single non - terminal symbol on the left side, the grammar defined is: 

(1) context free grammar (2) context sensitive grammar (3) unrestricted grammar (4) phrase grammar 

34. Which one from the following is false ? 

(1) LALR parser is Bottom - Up parser 

(2) A parsing algorithm which performs a left to right scanning and a right most deviation is RL (1). 

(3) LR parser is Bottom-Up parser. 

(4) In LL(1), the 1 indicates that there is a one - symbol look - ahead. 

35. Which phase of compiler generates stream of atoms ? 

(1) Syntax Analysis (2) Lexical Analysis (3) Code Generation (4) Code Optimization 

 36. A disk drive has 100 cyclinders, numbered 0 to 99. Disk requests come to the disk driver for cyclinders 12, 26, 24, 4, 42, 8 and 50 in that order. The driver is currently serving a request at cyclinder 24. A seek takes 6 msec per cyclinder moved. How much seek time is needed for shortest seek time first (SSTF) algorithm ? 

(1) 0.984 sec (2) 0.396 sec (3) 0.738 sec (4) 0.42 sec 

37. Let R and P be two processes, R be the set of variables read from memory, and W be the set of variables3 written to memory. For the concurrent execution of two processes P. and P which of the following conditions is not true ? 

 (1) R(Pi)nW(P) S 0 (2) W(Pi)nR(P) S 0 (3) R(Pi)nR(Pjj S 0 (4) W(P;) n W(r>) S O 

38. A LRU page replacement is used with four page frames and eight pages. How many page faults will occur with the reference string 0172327103 if the four frames are initially empty ? 

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 8 

39. What does the following command do? grep Pvn"abc"* 

(1) It will print all of the lines in the file x that match the search string "abc". 

(2) It will print all of the lines in file x that do not match the search string "abc". 

(3) It will print the total number of lines in the file x that match the string "abc". 

(4) It will print the specific line numbers of the file x in which there is a match for string "abc". 

40. The Unix Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes, the process table and the user structure. Which of the following information is not the part of user structure ? 

(1) File descriptor table (2) System call state (3) Scheduling parameters (4) Kernel stack 

41. Match the following : 

(a) Size-oriented metrics        (i)  uses number of external interfaces as one of the measurement parameter. 

(b) Function-oriented             (ii) originally designed to be applied to business information metrics systems. 

(c) Extended Function           (iii) derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity Point metrics measures by considering the size of the software. 

(d) Function point                 (iv) uses algorithm characteristics as one of the measurement parameter. 

Codes : 

     (a) (b) (c) (d) 

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 

(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 

 42. In which testing strategy requirements established during requirements analysis are validated against developed software ? 

(1) Validation testing (2) Integration testing (3) Regression testing (4) System testing 

43. Which process model is also called as classic life cycle model ? 

(1) Waterfall model (2) RAD model (3) Prototyping model (4) Incremental model 

44. Cohesion is an extension of: 

(1) Abstraction concept (2) Refinment concept (3) Information hiding concept (4) Modularity 

45. Which one from the following is highly associated activity of project planning ?

(1) Keep track of the project progress.

(2) Compare actual and planned progress and costs.

(3) Identify the activities, milestones and deliverables produced by a project. 

(4) Both (2) and (3).

 46. In the case of parallelization, Amdahl's law states that if P is the proportion of a program that can be made parallel and (1PP) is the proportion that cannot be parallelized, then the maximum speed-up that can be achieved by using N processors is : 

(1) 1/(1-P) + N.P  (2) 1/ (N - 1)P + P    (3) 1/(1 - P) +P/ N       (4) 1/ P + (1-P)/N 

47. Which of the following statements is incorrect for Parallel Virtual Machine (PVM) ? 

(1) The PVM communication model provides asynchronous blocking send, asynchronous blocking receive, and non-blocking receive function. 

(2) Message buffers are allocated dynamically. 

(3) The PVM communication model assumes that any task can send a message to any other PVM task and that there is no limit to the size or number of such messages. 

(4) In PVM model, the message order is not preserved. 

 48. Which of the following algorithms sort n integers, having the range 0 to (n2 -1), in ascending order in O(n) time? 

(1) Selection sort 

 (2) Bubble sort

(3) Radix sort

(4) Insertion sort 

49. Which of the following statements is FALSE about weak entity set ? 

(1) Weak entities can be deleted automatically when their strong entity is deleted. 

(2) Weak entity set avoids the data duplication and consequent possible inconsistencies caused by duplicating the key of the strong entity. 

(3) A weak entity set has no primary keys unless attributes of the strong entity set on which it depends are included. 

(4) Tuples in a weak entity set are not partitioned according to their relationship with tuples in a strong entity set. 

50. Which of the following is not valid with reference to Message Passing Interface (MPI) ? 

(1) MPI can run on any hardware platform. 

(2) The programming model is a distributed memory model. 

(3) All parallelism is implicit. 

(4) MPI - Comm - Size returns the total number of MPI processes in specified communication.

UGC NET Solved Paper -I June 2015

UGC NET Solved Paper -I June 2015

1. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability ?
(1) Knowing (2) Understanding (3) Analysing (4) Evaluating

2. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching ?
(1) Teacher's knowledge
(2) Class room activities that encourage learning
(3) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
(4) Learning through experience

3. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct ?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

4. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include :
(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture
(c) Group work
(d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

5. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of :
(1) Making selections for a specific job
(2) Selecting candidates for a course
(3) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
(4) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching

6. A good teacher is one who:
(1) gives useful information
(2) explains concepts and principles
(3) gives printed notes to students
(4) inspires students to learn

7. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct ?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

8. A good thesis writing should involve :
(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.
(b) careful checking of references.
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) a clear and well written abstract.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

9. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his :
(1) Fundamental Research (2) Applied Research
(3) Action Research (4) Evaluation Research

10. "Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test." This statement
indicates a :
(1) research hypothesis (2) null hypothesis
(3) directional hypothesis (4) statistical hypothesis

11. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other
situations ?
(1) Historical Research (2) Descriptive Research
(3) Experimental Research (4) Causal Comparative Research

12. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire ?
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.
(b) Review of the current literature.
(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 13 to 18.

Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what makes us Human.
Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings : "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being led by those who call themselves "rational optimists". They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the 'Practical Possibles', who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed. What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.

 

Answer the following questions :

13. Our knowledge is a collection of:
(1) all stories that we have heard during our life-time
(2) some stories that we remember
(3) a few stories that survive
(4) some important stories

14. Story telling is:
(1) an art    (2) a science    (3) in our genes     (4) the essence of what makes us human

15. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories ?
(1) We collectively choose to believe in
(2) Which are repeatedly narrated
(3) Designed to spread fear and tension
(4) Designed to make prophecy

16. Rational optimists :
(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 
(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (b) and (c) only

17. Humans become less selfish when:
(1) they work in large groups
(2) they listen to frightening stories
(3) they listen to cheerful stories
(4) they work in solitude

18. 'Practical Possibles' are the ones who :
(1) follow Midway Path (2) are doom-mongers
(3) are self-centred (4) are cheerful and carefree

19. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following ?
(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) 
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

20. Assertion (A) : Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.
Reason (R) : Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of information.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct

21. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication ?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

22. The term 'grapevine' is also known as :
(1) Downward communication
(2) Informal communication
(3) Upward communication
(4) Horizontal communication

23. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication ?
(1) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(2) Participation of the audience
(3) One-way transfer of information

(4) Strategic use of grapevine
24. In communication, the language is :
(1) The verbal code (2) Intrapersonal
(3) The symbolic code (4) The non-verbal code

25. The next term in the series is:
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(1) 73 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 80

26. In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of HOTELS will be :
(1) LEQIBP (2) ELQBIP (3) LEBIQP (4) ELIPQB

27. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight ?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 30

28. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is
related to the girl as:
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Son

29. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students who have :
passed in all five subjects                           =  5583
passed in three subjects only                    =  1400
passed in two subjects only                       =  1200
passed in one subject only                         =  735
failed in English only                                  =  75
failed in Physics only                                 =  145
failed in Chemistry only                            =  140
failed in Mathematics only                       =   200
failed in Bio-science only                          =   157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is :
(1) 6300 (2) 6900 (3) 7300 (4) 7900

30. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than his wife. After
3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the person's wife after 5 years will
be:
(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 45 (4) 50

31. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the
type:
(1) Inductive (2) Deductive (3) Demonstrative (4) Physiological

32. A deductive argument is invalid if:
(1) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(2) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(3) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
(4) Its premises and conclusions are all true

33. Inductive reasoning is grounded on :
(1) Integrity of nature (2) Unity of nature
(3) Uniformity of nature (4) Harmony of nature

34. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them :
Statements :
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes :
(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) 
(4) (b) and (c)

35. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ?
Select the code :
Statements :
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)

36. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition
is called:
(1) Stipulative
(2) Theoretical
(3) Lexical
(4) Persuasive
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Question numbers 37 to 42 are based on the tabulated data given below :
A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of them :

S.No	Age (in years)	Salary (in Thousand rupees per month)	S.no	Age (in years)	Salary (in Thousand rupees per month)
1.	44	35	11.	33	30
2.	32	20	12.	31	35
3.	54	45	13.	30	35
4.	42	35	14.	37	40
5.	31	20	15.	44	45
6.	53	60	16.	36	35
7.	42	50	17.	34	35
8.	51	55	18.	49	50
9.	34	25	19.	43	45
10.	41	30	20.	45	50

37. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary ?
(1) 35-40 years (2) 40 - 45 years (3) 45 - 50 years (4) 50 - 55 years

38. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30 - 35 years ?
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35%

39. What is the average age of the employees ?
(1) 40.3 years (2) 38.6 years (3) 47.2 years (4) 45.3 years

40. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary >= 40,000 per month ?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 35% (4) 32%

41. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40 - 50 years ?
(1) 35 (2) 42.5 (3) 40.5 (4) 36.5

42. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of all the employees?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 47%

43. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as :
(1) Protection (2) Detection (3) Encryption (4) Decryption

44. Which of the following is not an output device ?
(1) Printer (2) Speaker (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard

45. Which of the following represents one billion characters ?
(1) Kilobyte (2) Megabyte (3) Gigabyte (4) Terabyte

46. Which of the following is not open source software ?
(1) Internet explorer (2) Fedora Linux
(3) Open office (4) Apache HTTP server

47. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25 ?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011

48. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting ?
(1) Altavista (2) MAC (3) Microsoft Office (4) Google Talk

49. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum ?
(1) USA (2) European Union
(3) China (4) India

50. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(1) -3% (2) -6% (3) -10% (4) -15%

51. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately :
(1) ~8 (2) -16 (3) -32 (4) -64

52. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources ?
(1) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(2) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(3) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
(4) Oil, forests and tides

53. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included ?
(1) Carbon monoxide (2) Fine particulate matter
(3) Ozone (4) Chlorofluorocarbons

54. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(1) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(2) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(3) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
(4) Population, forest cover and land available per person

55. The session of the parliament is summoned by :
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

56. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on :
(1) 21st April (2) 24th April (3) 21st June (4) 7th July

57. The South Asia University is situated in the city of :
(1) Colombo (2) Dhaka (3) New Delhi (4) Kathmandu

58. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims ?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

59. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent (3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent

60. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was :
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II June 2014

UGC NET June 2014 Solved question paper -II

1.      Infrared signals can be used for short range  communication  in  a  closed area using propagation.
(A)   ground            (B)    sky
(C)    line of sight    (D)    space

2.    A  bridge  has  access  to address in the same network.
(A)   Physical    (B)    Network
(C)    Datalink    (D)   Application

3.     The minimum frame length for 10 Mbps Ethernet is _____  bytes. and maximum is____ bytes   

(A)   64 & 128          (B) 128 & 1518

(C)    1518 & 3036   (D) 64 & 1518 

4.    The bit rate of a signal is 3000 bps. If each signal unit carries 6 bits, the baud rate of the signal is    .
(A)    500 baud/sec
(B)    1000 baud/sec
(C)    3000 baud/sec
(D)    18000 baud/sec.

5.    Match the following:
           List-I                                        List - II
a.    Physical layer           i    Allow resources to  network access
b.    Datalink layer          ii    Move packets from one destination to other
c.    Network layer         iii.   Process to process message delivery   
d.    Transport layer        iv.   Transmission of bit stream
e.    Application Layer    v.    Formation of frames

Codes:
          a    b    c   d    e
(A)    iv    v    ii    iii    i
(B)    v     iv    i    ii    iii
(C)    i      iii    ii   v    iv   
(D)    i      ii    iv   iii    v

6.    A grammar G is LL(1) if and only if the following conditions hold for two distinct productions A → α | β
I.    First (α) ∩ First (β) ≠ {a} where a is some terminal symbol of the grammar.
II.   First (α) ∩ First (β) ≠ λ

III.  First (α) ∩ Follow (A) = Φ if λ ∈ First (P)
(A)   I and II           (B)   I and III
(C)   II and III        (D)   I, II and III

7.    Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar ?
(A)    Removing left recursion alone
(B)    Removing the grammar alone
(C)    Removing left recursion and factoring the grammar
(D)    None of the above

8.    A shift reduce parser suffers from
(A)    shift reduce conflict only
(B)    reduce reduce conflict only
(C)    both shift reduce conflict and reduce reduce conflict
(D)    shift handle and reduce handle conflicts

9.    The   context   free   grammar, for  the language L = {aⁿb^mc^k | k = |n - m|, n≥0, m≥0,k≥0} is
(A)    S → S₁S₃, S₁ → aS₁c | S₂ | λ, 

         S₂ → aS₂b|λ., S₃ → aS₃b| S₄ | λ, 

         S₄ → bS₄c|λ 

(B)    S → S₁S₃, S₁→ aS1S2c | λ, 

         S₂ → aS₂b|λ, S₃ → aS₃b| S₄ |λ, 

         S₄ → bS₄c|λ 

(C)    S → S₁|S₂, S,→ aS1S₂c | λ, 

         S₂ → aS₂b | λ, S₃ → aS₃b | S₄ |λ, 

         S₄ → bS₄c|λ

 (D)    S → S₁ | S3, S₁ → aS₁c|S₂ | λ, 

         S₂ → aS₂b | λ, S₃ → a S₃b| S₄ | λ, 

         S₄ → bS₄c |λ

10.    The regular grammar for the language L = {w|n_a(w) and n_b(w) are both even,
              w ∈{a, b}*} is given by : (Assume, p, q, r and s are states)
(A)    p → aq | br | λ, q → bs | ap 
         r → as | bp, s → ar | bq,        p and s are initial and final states.
(B)    p → aq | br, q → bs | ap 
         r → as | bp, s → ar | bq,        p and s are initial and final states.
(C)    p → aq | br | λ, q → bs | ap 
         r → as | bp, s → ar | bq         p is both initial and final states.
(D)    p → aq | br, q → bs | ap 
         r → as | bp, s → ar | bq         p is both initial and final states.

11.    KPA in CMM stands for
(A)    Key Process Area
(B)    Key Product Area
(C)    Key Principal Area
(D)    Key Performance Area

12.    Which one of the following is not a risk management technique for managing the risk due to unrealistic schedules and budgets ?
(A)    Detailed multi source cost and schedule estimation.
(B)    Design cost
(C)    Incremental development
(D)    Information hiding

13.    ________of a system is the structure or structures of the system which comprise software elements, the externally visible properties of these elements and the relationship amongst them.
(A)    Software construction
(B)    Software evolution
(C)    Software architecture
(D)    Software reuse

14.    In function point analysis, the number of complexity adjustment factors is
(A)    10    (B)    12
(C)    14    (D)   20

15.    Regression testing is primarily related to
(A)    Functional testing
(B)    Development testing
(C)    Data flow testing
(D)    Maintenance testing

16.    How many different truth tables of the compound propositions are there that involve the propositions p & q ?
(A)   2     (B)    4
(C)    8    (D)    16

17.    A Boolean function F is called self- dual if and only if
         F(X₁, X₂, ... .X_n) = F(X₁', X₂',......X_n')
How    many    Boolean   functions   of degree n are self-dual ?
(A)    2ⁿ         (B)    (2)²ⁿ 
(C)   (2)ⁿ²      (D)     (2)^2n-1

18.    Which of the following statement(s) is (are) not correct ?
i.      The 2' s complement of 0 is 0.
ii.     In 2's complement, the left most bit cannot be used to express a quantity.
iii.     For an n-bit word (2's complement) which includes the sign bit, there are   2^n-1 positive integers, 2ⁿ⁺¹   
        negative integers and one 0 for a total of 2ⁿ unique states.
iv.     In 2's complement the significant information is contained in the 1's of positive numbers and 0's of 
        the negative numbers.
(A)   i & iv         (B)    i & ii
(C)   iii               (D)    iv

19.    The notation ∃!xP(x) denotes the proposition "there exists a unique x such that P(x) is true".
         Give the truth values of the following statements :
         I.    ∃!xP(x) → ∃xP(x)
        II.    ∃!x ¬P(x) → ¬∀xP(x) 
(A)    Both I & II are true.
(B)    Both 1 & H are false.
(C)    I - false, II - true
(D)    I - true, II - false
 
20.    Give a compound proposition involving propositions p, q and r that is true when exactly two of p, q and r are true and is false otherwise.
(A)    (p∨q∧¬ r) ∧ (p∧¬q∧ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(B)    (p∧q∧¬ r) ∧ (p∨q∧¬ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(C)   (p∧q∧¬ r) ∨ (p∧¬q∧ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(D)   (p∧q∧¬ r) ∨ (p∧¬q∧ r) ∨ (¬p∧q∧ r)

21.    Consider the graph given below as

Ans : C
 
22. The upper bound and lower bound for the number of leaves in a B-tree of degree K with height h is given by:
(A)    K^h    and 2⌈K/2⌉^h-1
(B)    K*h  and 2⌊K/2⌋^h-1 
(C)    K^h    and 2⌊K/2⌋^h-1
 (D)   K*h  and 2⌈K/2⌉^h-1

23.    Consider a complete bipartite graph K_m,n  For  which values of m and n does this, complete graph have a Hamilton circuit
(A)   m = 3. n = 2    (B)    m = 2, n = 3
(C)    m = n ≥ 2       (D)   m = n ≥ 3

24.    Big-0 estimates for the factorial function and the logarithm of the factorial function i.e. n! and log n! is given by
(A)    0(n!)andO(nlogn)
(B)    0(nn) and 0(n log n)
(C)    0(n!)andO(logn!)
(D)    0(n") and 0(Iog n!)

25.    How many cards must be chosen from a deck to guarantee that at least
i.       two aces of two kinds are chosen.
ii.      two aces are chosen.
iii.     two cards of the same kind are chosen.
iv.     two cards of two different kinds are chosen.
(A)    50.50.14,5   (B)    51.51.15,7 (C)    52.52.14,5    (D)    51,51,14,5

26.    Match the following with respect to the    mobile computing technologies :
        List-I        List-II
a.    GPRS     i.    An integrated digital radio standard
b.    GSM      ii.   3G wireless/Mobile technology
c.    UMTS    iii.  Nine different schemes for modulation and error correction
d.    EDGE     iv. An emerging wireless service that offers g mobile data
Codes :
         a    b    c    d   
(A)    iii   iv    ii    i
(B)    iv   i      ii    iii
(c)     ii    iii    iv   i
(d)     ii    i     iv   iii

27. Object Request Broker (ORB) is
I.    A software program that runs on the client as well as on the application server.
II.   A software program that runs on the client side only.
III.  A software program that runs on the application server, where most of the components reside.
(A)   I, II & III     (B)   I&II
(C)    II & III       (D)   I only

28.   A software agent is defined as
I.      A software developed for accomplishing a given task.
II.    A computer program which is capable of acting on behalf of the user in order to accomplish a given computational task.
III.    An   open   source   software   for accomplishing a given task.
(A)    I
(B)    II
(C)    III
(D)    All of the above

29.    Match the following :
       List -1                             List - II
a.   Classification            i.   Principal component analysis
b.   Clustering                ii. Branch and Bound
c.   Feature Extraction   iii. K-nearest neighbor
d.   Feature Selection    iv. K-means
Codes:
          a      b      c    d
(A)    iii      iv      ii    i
(B)    iv      iii      i     ii
(C)    iii      iv      i     ii
(D)    iv      iii      ii    i

30.    SET, an open encryption and security specification model that is designed for protecting credit card transactions on the internet, stands for
(A)    Secure Electronic Transaction
(B)    Secular Enterprise for Transaction
(C)    Security Electronic Transmission
(D)    Secured Electronic Termination

31.    In a paged memory management algorithm, the hit ratio is 70%. If it takes 30 nanoseconds to search Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) and 100 nanoseconds (ns) to access memory, the effective memory access time is
(A)    91 ns      (B)    69 ns
(Cj    200 ns    (D)    160 ns

32.    Match the following
                  List -I                                  List - II
a.    Multilevel feedback queue             i. Time-slicing
b.    FCFS                                          ii. Criteria to move processes between queues
c.    Shortest process next                   iii. Batch processing
d.    Round robin  scheduling               iv. Exponential smoothening
Codes
         a    b    c    d
(A)    i    iii    ii    iv
(B)    iv    iii    ii    i
(C)    iii    i    iv    ii
(D)    ii    iii    iv    i   

33.    Consider a system with five processes P0 through P4 and three resource types R1, R2 and R3. Resource type R, has 10 instances, R2 has 5 instances and R3 has 7 instances. Suppose that at time T0,   the following snapshot of  the system has been taken :
        Allocation
       R1    R2    R3
p0    0      1      0
p1    2      0      0
p2    3      0      2
p3    2      1      1
p4    0      2      2

    Max
R1    R2    R3
7       5      3
3       2      2
9       0      2
2       2      2
4       3      3

    Available
R1    R2    R3
3       3      2
Assume that now the process P1 requests one additional instance of type R1 and two instances of resource type R3. The state resulting after this allocation will be
(A)   Ready"state     (B)    Safe state         (C)   Blocked state          (D)   Unsafe state

34.    Match the following   
    List -1                                                   List - II
a. Contiguous allocation    i.    This scheme supports very large file sizes.
b. Linked allocation          ii.    This allocation technique supports only sequential files.
c. Indexed allocation        iii.    Number of disks required to access file is minimal.
d. Multi- level indexed      iv.   This technique suffers from maximum wastage of space in storing pointers.
Codes:       
         a       b  c   d
(A)   iii      iv   ii    i
(B)   iii      ii    iv   i
(C)   i       ii    iv   iii
(D)   i       iv   ii    iii

35.    Which of the following commands will output "onetwothree" ?
(A)    for val; do echo-n $val; done < one two three
(B)    for one two three; do echo-n-; done
(C)    for n in one two three; do echo-n $n; done
(D)    for n in one two three {echo -n $n}

36.    Mergesort makes two recursive calls. Which statement is true after these two recursive calls finish, but before the merge step ?
(A)    The array elements form a heap.
(B)    Elements in each half of the array are sorted amongst themselves.
(C)    Elements in the first half of the array are less than or equal to elements in second half of the array.
(D)    All of the above

37.    A text is made up of the characters α, β, γ, δ, σ and a with the probability 0.12, 0.40, 0.15, 0.08 and 0.25 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have the average length of
(A)    1.7    (B)    2.15
(C)    3.4    (D)    3.8

38.    Searching for an element in the hash table requires Ο(1) time for the time, whereas for direct addressing it holds for the time.
(A)    worst-case, average
(B)    worst-case, worst-case
(C)    average, worst-case
(D)    best, average

39.    An algorithm is made up of 2 modules M1  and M2.  If time  complexity of modules M1 and M2 are h(n) and g(n) respectively, the time complexity of the algorithm is
(A)    min (h(n), g(n))
(B)    max (h(n), g(n))
(C)    h(n) + g(n)
(D)    h(n)*g(n)

40.    What is the maximum number of parenthesis that will appear on the stack at any one time for parenthesis expression given by
(( )     ( ( ) )     ( ( ) ) )
(A)   2        (B)   3
(C)   4        (D)   5

41. Match the following :
    List -1                                  List - II
a. Automatic storage class   i.     Scope of the variable is global.
b. Register storage class      ii.    Value of the variable persists between different function calls.
c. Static storage class          iii.   Value stored in memory and local to the block in which the variable is defined.
d. External storage class      iv.   Value stored in CPU registers.
Codes :       
        a      b    c    d
(A)   iii     iv    i    ii
(B)   iii      iv    ii    i
(C)   iv      iii    ii    i
(D)   iv      iii    i    ii

42.    When we pass an array as an argument to a function, what actually gets passed ?
(A)    Address of the array
(B)    Values of the elements of the array
(C)    Base address of the array
(D)    Number of elements of the array

43.    While (87) printf("computer"); The above C statement will
(A)    print "computer" 87 times
(B)    print "computer" 0 times
(C)    print "computer" 1 times
(D)    print "computer" infinite times

44.    A friend function can be used to
(A)    avoid arguments between classes.
(B)    allow  access  to classes whose source code is unavailable.
(C)    allow  one  class  to  access  an unrelated class.
(D)    None of the above

45.    Which of the following is the correct value returned to the operating system upon the successful completion of a program ?
(A)    0
(B)    1
(C)    -1
(D)    Program do not return a value.

46.    Manager's salary details are hidden from the employee. This is called as
(A)    Conceptual level data hiding
(B)    Physical level data hiding
(C)    External level data hiding
(D)    Local level data hiding

47.    Which of the following statements is false ?
(A)    Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.
(B)    A relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF.
(C)    A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in 3NF relation.
(D)    A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in BCNF relation.

48.    A clustering  index  is  created when
(A)    primary key is declared and ordered
(B)    no key ordered
(C)    foreign key ordered
(D)    there is no key and no order

49.    Let R ={ A, B, C, D. E, F} be a relation schema with the following dependencies C→ F, E → A, EC → D, A → B
Which of the following is a key for R ?
(A)    CD    (B)    EC
(C)    AE    (D)    AC

50.    Match the following :
      List-I                                  List- II
a.    DDL                             i.   LOCK TABLE
b.    DML                            ii. COMMIT
c.    TCL                             iii. Natural Difference
d.    BINARY Operation     iv. REVOKE
Codes:
         a       b     C    d
(A)    ii       i      iii     iv
(B)    i       ii      iv      iii
(C)    iii     ii        i     iv
(D)    iv       i      ii     iii