Pages

Showing posts with label ugc net computer science. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ugc net computer science. Show all posts

Monday, November 30, 2015

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -III June 2015

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. For the 8 - bit word 00111001, the check bits stored with it would be 0111. Suppose when the word is read from memory, the check bits are calculated to be 1101. What is the data word that was read from memory ?
(1) 10011001 (2) 00011001 (3) 00111000 (4) 11000110

2. Consider a 32 - bit microprocessor, with a 16 - bit external data bus, driven by an 8 MHz input clock. Assume that this microprocessor has a bus cycle whose minimum duration equals four input clock cycles. What is the maximum data transfer rate for this microprocessor ?
(1) 8x106 bytes/sec (2) 4 x106 bytes/sec (3) 16x106 bytes/sec (4) 4 x109 bytes/sec

3. The RST 7 instruction in 8085 microprocessor is equivalent to :
(1) CALL 0010 H         (2) CALL 0034 H      (3) CALL 0038 H         (4) CALL 003C H

4. The equivalent hexadecimal notation for octal number 2550276 is :
(1) FADED      (2) AEOBE        (3) ADOBE         (4) ACABE

5. The CPU of a system having 1 MIPS execution rate needs 4 machine cycles on an average for executing an instruction. The fifty percent of the cycles use memory bus. A memory read/ write employs one machine cycle. For execution of the programs, the system utilizes 90 percent of the CPU time. For block data transfer, an IO device is attached to the system while CPU executes the background programs continuously. What is the maximum IO data transfer rate if programmed IO data transfer technique is used ?
(1) 500 Kbytes/sec   (2) 2.2 M bytes/sec (3) 125 Kbytes/sec    (4) 250 Kbytes/sec

6. The number of flip-flops required to design a modulo - 272 counter is :
(1) 8     (2) 9     (3) 27     (4) 11

7. Let E1 and E2 be two entities in E-R diagram with simple single valued attributes. R1 and R2 are two relationships between E1 and E2 where R1 is one - many and R2 is many - many. R1 and R2 do not have any attribute of their own. How many minimum number of tables are required to represent this situation in the Relational Model ?
(1) 4      (2) 3           (3) 2         (4) 1

8. The STUDENT information in a university stored in the relation
STUDENT (Name, SEX, Marks, DEPT_Name)
Consider the following SQL Query SELECT DEPT_Name from STUDENT where SEX S 'M' group by DEPT_Name having avg (Marks) >SELECT avg (Marks) from STUDENT. It Returns the Name of the Department for which :
(1) The Average marks of Male students is more than the average marks of students in the same Department (2) The average marks of male students is more than the average marks of students in the University
(3) The average marks of male students is more than the average marks of male students in the University
(4) The average marks of students is more than the average marks of male students in the University

9. Select the 'False' statement from the following statements about Normal Forms :
(1) Lossless preserving decomposition into 3NF is always possible
(2) Lossless preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
(3) Any Relation with two attributes is in BCNF
(4) BCNF is stronger than 3NF

10. The Relation Vendor Order (V_no, V_ord_no, V_name, Qty_sup, unit_price) is in 2NF because:
(1) Nonkey attribute V_name is dependent on V_no which is part of composite key
(2) Nonkey attribute V_name is dependent on Qty_sup
(3) Key attribute Qty_sup is dependent on primary_key unit price
(4) Key attribute V_ord_no is dependent on primary_key unit price

11. The relation schemas R1 and R2 form a Lossless join decomposition of R if and only if :
(a) R1 ∩R2 ↠(R1 - R2)
(b) R1 →R2
(c) R1 ∩R2↠(R2 - R1 )
(d) R2R1 ∩R2
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) happens        (2) (a) and (d) happens
(3) (a) and (c) happens        (4) (b) and (c) happens

12. In the indexed scheme of blocks to a file, the maximum possible size of the file depends on :
(1) The number of blocks used for index and the size of index
(2) Size of Blocks and size of Address
(3) Size of index
(4) Size of Block

13. Give the number of principal vanishing point(s) along with their direction for the standard perspective transformation :
(1) Only one in the direction K                  (2) Two in the directions I and J
(3) Three in the directions I, J and K         (4) Only two in the directions J and K

14. Consider a triangle A(0,0), 13(1,1) and C(5,2). The triangle has to be rotated by an angle of 45° about the point P(-1, -1). What shall be the coordinates of the new triangle ?
(1) A' =  ( 1, 2 - 1 ) , B' = ( -1, 2 2 - 1 ) and C' = [3 2 - 1, 9/2  2 - 1]
(2) A' =  ( 1, 2 - 1 ) , B' = ( 2 2 - 1, -1 ) and C' = [3 2 - 1, 9/2  2 - 1]
(3) A' =  ( -1, 2 - 1 ) , B' = ( -1, 2 2 - 1 ) and C' = [3 2 - 1, 9/2  2 - 1]
(4) A' =  ( 2 - 1, -1 ), B' = ( -1, 2 2 - 1 ) and C' = [3 2 - 1, 9/2  2 - 1]

15. The process of dividing an analog signal into a string of discrete outputs, each of constant amplitude, is called:
(1) Strobing    (2) Amplification     (3) Conditioning     (4) Quantization

16. Which of the following is not a basic primitive of the Graphics Kernel System (GKS) ?
(1) POLYLINE     (2) POLYDRAW      (3) FILL AREA     (4) POLYMARKER

17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
(a) Mapping the co-ordinates of the points and lines that form the picture into the appropriate co-ordinates on the device or workstation is known as viewing transformation.
(b) The right-handed cartesian co-ordinates system in whose co-ordinates we describe the picture is known as world co-ordinate system.
(c) The co-ordinate system that corresponds to the device or workstation where the image is to be displayed is known as physical device co-ordinate system.
(d) Left - handed co-ordinate system in which the display area of the virtual display device corresponds to the unit (Ixl) square whose lower left-hand corner is at the origin of the co-ordinate system, is known as normalized device co-ordinate system.
Codes :
(1) (a) only            (2) (a) and (b)            (3) (c) only          (4) (d) only

18. Match the following :
      List-I                                        List-II
(a) Flood Gun                   (i)   An electron gun designed to flood the entire screen with electrons.  
(b) Collector                     (ii)   Partly energised by flooding gun, stores the charge generated by the writing gun.
(c) Ground                        (iii)  Used to discharge the collector.
(d) Phosphorus grains        (iv) Used in memory - tube display and similar to those used in standard CRT.
(e) Writing Gun System      (v) Used in memory - tube display and basically the same as the electron gun used in a conventional CRT.
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(4) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

 19. Minimal deterministic finite automaton for the language L = {0n | n ≥ 0 , n ≠ 4} will have :
(1) 1 final state among 5 states         (2) 4 final states among 5 states
(3) 1 final state among 6 states         (4) 5 final states among 6 states

20. The regular expression corresponding to the language L where
L = {x  {0, 1}*  | x ends with 1 and does not contain substring 00}   is :
(1) (1+01)* (10 + 01)           (2) (1+01)* 01
(3) (1+01)* (1 + 01)             (4) (10+01)*01

21. The transition function for the language L = {w|na(w) and nb(w) are both odd} is given by :
δ(q0, a) = q1         ;   δ(q0, b) = q2
δ(q1, a) = q0         ;   δ(q1, b) = q3
δ(q2, a) = q3         ;   δ(q2, b) = q0
δ(q3, a) = q2         ;   δ(q3, b) = q1
The initial and final states of the automata are :
(1) q0 and qrespectively            (2) qand qrespectively
(3) qand qrespectively            (4) qand qrespectively

22. The clausal form of the disjunctive normal form ¬ A  ¬ B  ¬ C  D is:
(1) ABC⇒D                 (2) ABCD⇒true
(3) ABCD⇒true        (4) A  B  C  D ⇒ false

23. Which of the following is false for the programming language PROLOG ?
(1) A PROLOG variable can only be assigned to a value once
(2) PROLOG is a strongly typed language
(3) The scope of a variable in PROLOG is a single clause or rule
(4) The scope of a variable in PROLOG is a single query

24. Which one of the following is true ?
(1) The resolvent of two Horn clauses is not a Horn clause
(2) The resolvent of two Horn clauses is a Horn clause
(3) If we resolve a negated goal G against a fact or rule A to get clause C then C has positive literal or non-null goal
(4) If we resolve a negated goal G against a fact or rule A to get clause C then C has positive literal or null goal

25. Which transmission technique guarantees that data packets will be received by the receiver in the same order in which they were sent by the sender ?
(1) Broadcasting               (2) Unicasting
(3) Packet switching         (4) Circuit switching

 26. Which of the following control fields in TCP header is used to specify whether the sender has no more data to transmit ?
(1) FIN            (2) RST               (3) SYN              (4) PSH

27. Which are the two modes of IP security ?
(1) Transport and certificate                    (2) Transport and tunnel
(3) Certificate and tunnel                         (4) Preshared and transport

28. A message "COMPUTERNETWORK" encrypted (ignore quotes) using columnar transposition cipher with a key "LAYER". The encrypted message is :
(1) CTTOEWMROPNRUEK                   (2) MROUEKCTTPNROEW
(3) OEWPNRCTTUEKMRO                   (4) UEKPNRMROOEWCTT

29. Suppose a digitized voice channel is made by digitizing 8 kHz bandwidth analog voice signal. It is required to sample the signal at twice the highest frequency (two samples per hertz). What is the bit rate required, if it is assumed that each sample requires 8 bits ?
(1) 32 kbps        (2) 64 kbps         (3) 128 kbps          (4) 256 kbps

30. The maximum payload of a TCP segment is :
(1) 65,535            (2) 65,515            (3) 65,495           (4) 65,475

31. An all-pairs shortest-paths problem is efficiently solved using :
(1) Dijkstra' algorithm           (2) Bellman-Ford algorithm
(3) Kruskal algorithm            (4) Floyd-Warshall algorithm

32. The travelling salesman problem can be solved in :
(1) Polynomial time using dynamic programming algorithm
(2) Polynomial time using branch-and-bound algorithm
(3) Exponential time using dynamic programming algorithm or branch-and-bound algorithm
(4) Polynomial time using backtracking algorithm

33. Which of the following is asymptotically smaller ?
(1) lg(lg*n)       (2) lg*(lgn)        (3) lg(n!)         (4) lg*(n!)

34. Consider a hash table of size m = 100 and the hash function h(k) = floor (m(kA mod 1)) for  A = ( 2  -1) / 2 = 0.618033. Compute the location to which the key k = 123456 is placed in hash table.
(1) 77          (2) 82           (3) 88           (4) 89

35. Let ƒ(n) and g (n) be asymptotically non-negative functions. Which of the following is correct ?
(1) θ(ƒ(n)*g(n)) = min(ƒ(n), g(n))           (2) θ(ƒ(n)*g(n)) = max(ƒ(n), g(n))
(3) θ(ƒ(n)+g(n)) = min(ƒ(n), g(n))           (4) θ(ƒ(n)+g(n)) = max(ƒ(n), g(n))

36. The number of nodes of height h in any n - element heap is ________ .
(1) h         (2) zh             (3) ceil (n /zh )             (4) ceil (n/zh+1)

37. In Java, when we implement an interface method, it must be declared as :
(1) Private        (2) Protected          (3) Public        (4) Friend

38. The Servlet Response interface enables a servlet to formulate a response for a client using the method . (1) void log(Exceptione, Strings)              (2) void destroy ()
(3) int get ServerPort()                            (4) void set ContextType(String type)

 39. Which one of the following is correct ?
(1) Java applets can not be written in any programming language
(2) An applet is not a small program
(3) An applet can be run on its own
(4) Applets are embedded in another applications

40. In XML we can specify the frequency of an element by using the symbols :
(1) + * !    (2) # * !          (3) + * ?    (4) - * ?

41. In XML, DOCTYPE declaration specifies to include a reference to file.
(1) Document type Definition          (2) Document type declaration
(3) Document transfer definition      (4) Document type language

42. Module design is used to maximize cohesion and minimize coupling. Which of the following is the key to implement this rule?
(1) Inheritance (2) Polymorphism (3) Encapsulation (4) Abstraction

43. Verification:
(1) refers to the set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function
(2) gives answer to the question - Are we building the product right ?
(3) requires execution of software
(4) both (1) and (2)

 44. Which design matric is used to measure the compactness of the program in terms of lines of code?
(1) Consistency          (2) Conciseness          (3) Efficiency     (4) Accuracy

45. Requirements prioritisation and negotiation belongs to :
(1) Requirements validation              (2) Requirements elicitation
(3) Feasibility study                         (4) Requirements reviews

46. Adaptive maintenance is a maintenance which .
(1) correct errors that were not discovered till testing phase.
(2) is carried out to port the existing software to a new environment.
(3) improves the system performance.
(4) both (2) and (3)

 47. A Design concept Refinement is a:
(1) Top-down approach
(2) Complementary of Abstraction concept
(3) Process of elaboration
(4) All of the above

48. A software design is highly modular if :
(1) cohesion is functional and coupling is data type.
(2) cohesion is coincidental and coupling is data type.
(3) cohesion is sequential and coupling is content type.
(4) cohesion is functional and coupling is stamp type.

 49. Match the following for operating system techniques with the most appropriate advantage :
           List-I                                 List-II            
(a) Spooling                           (i)  Allows several jobs in memory to improve CPU utilization
(b) Multiprogramming            (ii) Access to shared resources among geographically dispersed computers in a transparent way
(c) Time sharing                    (iii) Overlapping I/O and computations
(d) Distributed computing      (iv)  Allows many users to share a computer simultaneously by switching processor frequently
Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

50. Which of the following statements is not true for Multi Level Feedback Queue processor scheduling algorithm ?
(1) Queues have different priorities
(2) Each queue may have different scheduling algorithm
(3) Processes are permanently assigned to a queue
(4) This algorithm can be configured to match a specific system under design

51. What is the most appropriate function of Memory Management Unit (MMU) ?
(1) It is an associative memory to store TLB
(2) It is a technique of supporting multiprogramming by creating dynamic partitions
(3) It is a chip to map virtual address to physical address
(4) It is an algorithm to allocate and deallocate main memory to a process

52. Dining Philosopher's problem is a :
(1) Producer - consumer problem        (2)  Classical IPC problem
(3) Starvation problem                         (4) Synchronization primitive

 53. In_________ allocation method for disk block allocation in a file system, insertion and deletion of blocks in a file is easy.
(1) Index    (2) Linked     (3) Contiguous    (4) Bit Map

54. A unix file may be of the type:
(1) Regular file                  (2) Directory file
(3) Device file                   (4) Any one of the above

55. Match the following :
 List-I                                           List - II
(a) Intelligence                         (i) Contextual, tacit, transfer needs learning
(b) Knowledge                        (ii) Scattered facts, easily transferable
(c) Information                        (iii) Judgemental 
(d) Data                                  (iv) Codifiable, endorsed with relevance and purpose
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

56. Match the following knowledge representation techniques with their applications :
         List-I                                  List - II
(a) Frames                               (i) Pictorial representation of objects, their attributes and relationships 
(b) Conceptual dependencies   (ii) To describe real world stereotype events
(c) Associative networks         (iii) Record like structures for grouping closely related knowledge
(d) Scripts                               (iv) Structures and primitives to represent sentences
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

57. In propositional logic P  Q is equivalent to (Where ~ denotes NOT) :
(1) ~(P Q)~(QP)       (2) (~ PQ)  (~ Q P)
(3) (P  Q)  (Q  P)      (4) ~(PQ)→ ~(QP)

58. Which of the following statements is true for Branch - and - Bound search ?
(1) Underestimates of remaining distance may cause deviation from optimal path.
(2) Overestimates can't cause right path to be overlooked.
(3) Dynamic programming principle can be used to discard redundant partial paths.
(4) All of the above

59. Match the following with respect to heuristic search techniques : 
 List-I                                                                List-II
(a) Steepest-accent Hill Climbing         (i)   Keeps track of all partial paths which can be candidate for further exploration  
(b) Branch - and - bound                    (ii)   Discover problem state(s) that satisfy a set of constraints
(c) Constraint satisfaction                    (iii)  Detects difference between current state and goal state
(d) Means-end-analysis                       (iv) Considers all moves from current state and selects best move
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

60. Match the following for methods of MIS develpoment :
           List-I                                                        List-II
(a) Joint Application Design (JAD)        (i)  Delivers functionality in rapid iteration measured in weeks and needs frequent communication, development, testing and delivery
(b) Computer Aided Software Engg      (ii) Reusable applications generally with one specific function. It is closely linked with idea of web services and service oriented architecture.
(c) Agile development                         (iii)   Tools to automate many tasks of SDLC
(d) Component based technology       (iv)  A group based tool for collecting user requirements and creating system design. Mostly used in analysis and design stages of SDLC
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

61. A context free grammar for L = { w | n0 (w) > n (w)} is given by :
(1) S→ 0|0S|1SS                      (2) S→ 0S|1S|0SS|1SS|0|1
(3) S→ 0|0S|1SS|S1S|SS1        (4) S→  0 S | 1 S | 0 | 1

62.    Given the following two statements :
S1 : If L1 and L2 are recursively enumerable languages over ∑, then L L2 and L L2 are also recursively enumerable.
S2 : The set of recursively enumerable languages is countable.
Which of the following is correct?
(1) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct
(2) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct
(3) Both S1 and S2 are not correct
(4) Both S1 and S2 are correct

63 Given the following grammars:
G1:    S→ AB|aaB
        A  aA | 
        B→ bB| 

G2:   S→ A | B
        A→ a A b|ab
        B→ a b B| 
Which of the following is correct?
(1) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is unambiguous grammars
(2) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is ambiguous grammars
(3) both G1 and G2 are ambiguous grammars
(4) both G1 and G2 are unambiguous grammars

64 Given the symbols A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H with the probabilities 1/30, 1/30, 1/30, 2/30, 3/30, 5/30, 5/30 and 12/30 respectively. The average Huffman code size in bits 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 per symbol is:
(1)67/30  (2) 70/34   (3)76/30  (4)78/30

65. The redundancy in images stems from :
(1) pixel decorrelation            (2) pixel correlation
(3) pixel quantization              (4) image size

 66. In a binary Hamming Code the number of check digits is r then number of message digits is equal to: 
(1) 2r - 1     (2) 2r - r -1     (3) 2r - r +1      (4) 2r  +r +1

 67. In the Hungarian method for solving assignment problem, an optimal assignment requires that the maximum number of lines that can be drawn through squares with zero opportunity cost be equal to the number of:
(1) rows or columns             (2) rows + columns
(3) rows + columns - 1        (4) rows + columns +1

 68. Consider the following transportation problem :
                                                                    Warehouse
                       Factory
                           
W1W2W3Supply
F1162012200
F214818160
F326241690
Demand180120150
The initial basic feasible solution of the above transportation problem using Vogel's Approximation Method (VAM) is given below :

                                                                    Warehouse
                       Factory
                           
W1W2W3Supply
F116 (140)    2012 (60)200
F214 (40)8 (120)   18160
F3262416 (90)90
Demand180120150
The solution of the above problem :
(1) is degenerate solution             (2) is optimum solution
(3) needs to improve                   (4) is infeasible solution

 69. Given the following statements with respect to linear programming problem :
S1 : The dual of the dual linear programming problem is again the primal problem
S2 : If either the primal or the dual problem has an unbounded objective function value, the other problem has no feasible solution.
S3 : If either the primal or dual problem has a finite optimal solution, the other one also possesses the same, and the optimal value of the objective functions of the two problems are equal.
Which of the following is true?
(1) S1 and S2         (2) S1 and S3
(3) S2 and S3         (4) S1, S2 and S3

70. Consider the two class classification task that consists of the following points :
Class C1 :[1     1.5]       [1   -1.5]
Class C2 :[-2    2.5]       [-2  -2.5]
The decision boundary between the two classes using single perceptron is given by :
(1) x1 + x2 + 1.5 = 0       (2) x1 + x2 - 1.5 = 0
(3) x1 + 1.5 = 0               (4)x1 -1.5 = 0

71. Let A and B be two fuzzy integers defined as :
A = {(1, 0.3), (2, 0.6), (3, 1), (4, 0.7), (5, 0.2)}
B = {(10, 0.5), (11, 1), (12, 0.5)}


(1) {(11, 0.8), (13, 1), (15,1)}
(2) {(11, 0.3), (12, 0.5), (13, 1), (14, 1), (15, 1), (16, 0.5), (17, 0.2)}
(3) {(11, 0.3), (12, 0.5), (13, 0.6), (14, 1), (15, 1), (16, 0.5), (17, 0.2)}
(4) {(11, 0.3), (12, 0.5), (13, 0.6), (14, 1), (15, 0.7), (16, 0.5), (17, 0.2)}

72. Suppose the function y and a fuzzy integer number around -4 for x are given as y=(x - 3)2 + 2.
Around -4 ={(2, 0.3), (3, 0.6), (4, 1), (5, 0.6), (6, 0.3)} respectively. Then f (Around -4) is given by:
(1) {(2, 0.6), (3, 0.3), (6, 1), (11, 0.3)}
(2) {(2, 0.6), (3, 1), (6, 1), (11, 0.3)}
(3) {(2, 0.6), (3, 1), (6, 0.6), (11, 0.3)}
(4) {(2, 0.6), (3, 0.3), (6, 0.6), (11, 0.3)}

 73. Match the following for unix system calls :
List-I                  List - II
(a) exec        (i)  Creates a new process
(b) brk         (ii)  Invokes another program overlaying memory space with a copy of an executable file
(c) wait        (iii) To increase or decrease the size of data region
(d) fork       (iv)  A process synchronizes with termination of child process
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (vi) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

 74. WOW32 is a:
(1) Win 32 API library for creating processes and threads.
(2) Special kind of file system to the NT name space.
(3) Kernel - mode objects accessible through Win 32 API
(4) Special execution environment used to run 16 bit Windows applications on 32 - bit machines.

75. The unix command :
$vi   filel file2
(1) Edits filel and stores the contents of filel in file2
(2) Both files i.e. filel and file2 can be edited using 'ex' command to travel between the files
(3) Both files can be edited using 'mv' command to move between the files
(4) Edits filel first, saves it and then edits file2

Sunday, July 20, 2014

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -III June 2014

UGC NET June 2014 Solved question paper -III

 Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

 1. Beam-penetration and shadow-mask are the two basic techniques for producing color displays with a CRT. Which of the following is not true ?
I. The beam-penetration is used with random scan monitors.
II. Shadow-mask is used in rasterscan systems.
III. Beam-penetration method is better than shadow-mask method.
IV. Shadow-mask method is better than beam-penetration method.
(A) I and II               (B) II and III
(C) III only               (D) IV only

2. Line caps are used for adjusting the shape of the line ends to give them a better appearance. Various kinds of line caps used are
(A) Butt cap and sharp cap
(B) Butt cap and round cap
(C) Butt cap, sharp cap and round cap
(D) Butt cap, round cap and projecting square cap

3. Given below are certain output primitives and their associated attributes. Match each primitive with its corresponding attributes :
            List – I                             List – II
a. Line                                  i. Type, Size, Color
b. Fill Area                           ii. Color, Size, Font
c. Text                                 iii. Style, Color, Pattern
d. Marker                           iv. Type, Width, Color
Codes :
      a  b   c   d
(A) i   ii   iii   iv
(B) ii   i   iii   iv
(C) iv  iii  ii    i
(D) iii  i   iv   ii

4. Consider a window bounded by the lines : x = 0; y= 0; x = 5 and y = 3. The line segment joining (–1, 0) and (4, 5), if clipped against this window will connect the points
(A) (0, 1) and (2, 3)
(B) (0, 1) and (3, 3)
(C) (0, 1) and (4, 3)
(D) (0, 1) and (3, 2)

5. Which of the following color models are defined with three primary colors ?
(A) RGB and HSV color models
(B) CMY and HSV color models
(C) HSV and HLS color models
(D) RGB and CMY color models

6. In a digital transmission, the receiver clock is 0.1 percent faster than the sender clock. How many extra bits per second does the receiver receive if the data rate is 1 Mbps ?
(A) 10 bps            (B) 100 bps
(C) 1000 bps        (D) 10000 bps

7. Given U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
A = {(3, 0.7), (5, 1), (6, 0.8)}
then ~A will be : (where ~ —>  complement)
(A) {(4, 0.7), (2, 1), (1, 0.8)}
(B) {(4, 0.3), (5, 0), (6, 0.2) }
(C) {(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 0.3), (4, 1), (6, 0.2), (7, 1)}
(D) {(3, 0.3), (6.0.2)}

8. Consider a fuzzy set old as defined below
Old = {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2), (40, 0.4), (50, 0.6), (60, 0.8), (70, 1), (80, 1)}
Then the alpha-cut for alpha = 0.4 for the set old will be
(A) {(40, 0.4)}
(B) {50, 60, 70, 80}
(C) {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2)}
(D) {(20, 0), (30, 0), (40, 1), (50, 1), (60, 1), (70, 1), (80, 1)}

9. Perceptron learning, Delta learning and LMS learning are learning methods which falls under the category of
(A) Error correction learning – learning with a teacher
(B) Reinforcement learning – learning with a critic
(C) Hebbian learning
(D) Competitive learning – learning without a teacher

10. Code blocks allow many algorithms to be implemented with the following parameters :
(A) clarity, elegance, performance
(B) clarity, elegance, efficiency
(C) elegance, performance, execution
(D) execution, clarity, performance

11. Match the following with respect to the jump statements :
List – I                            List – II
a. return                    i. The conditional test and increment portions
b. goto                     ii. A value associated with it
c. break                  iii. Requires a label for operation
d. continue              iv. An exit from only the innermost loop
Codes :
        a   b  c   d
(A)  ii   iii   iv   i
(B)  iii   iv   i   ii
(C)  iv   iii   ii   i
(D)  iv   iii   i   ii

12. The control string in C++ consists of three important classifications of characters
(A) Escape sequence characters, Format specifiers and Whitespace characters
(B) Special characters, White-space characters and Non-white space characters
(C) Format specifiers, White-space characters and Non-white space characters
(D) Special characters, White-space characters and Format specifiers

13. Match the following with respect to I/O classes in object oriented programming :
List – I                List – II
a. fopen()         i. returns end of file
b. fclose()        ii. return for any problem report
c. ferror()        iii. returns 0
d. feof()          iv. returns a file pointer
Codes :
       a b   c   d
(A) iv   i   ii   iii
(B) iii   i   iv   ii
(C) ii   iii   iv   i
(D) iv   iii   i   ii

14. Which one of the following describes the syntax of prolog program ?
I. Rules and facts are terminated by full stop (.)
II. Rules and facts are terminated by semicolon (;)
III. Variables names must start with upper case alphabets.
IV. Variables names must start with lower case alphabets.
Codes :
(A) I, II      (B) III, IV
(C) I, III     (D) II, IV

15. Let L be any language. Define even (W) as the strings obtained by extracting from W the letters in the even-numbered positions and even(L) = {even (W) | W Î L}. We define another language Chop (L) by removing the two leftmost symbols of every string in L given by Chop(L) = {W | n W Î L, with | n | = 2}. 

If L is regular language then
(A) even(L) is regular and Chop(L) is not regular.
(B) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are regular.
(C) even(L) is not regular and Chop(L) is regular.
(D) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are not regular.

16. Software testing is
(A) the process of establishing that errors are not present.
(B) the process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do.
(C) the process of executing a program to show that it is working as per specifications.
(D) the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors.

17. Assume that a program will experience 200 failures in infinite time. It has now experienced 100 failures. The initial failure intensity was 20 failures/CPU hr. Then the current failure intensity will be
(A) 5 failures/CPU hr
(B) 10 failures/CPU hr.
(C) 20 failures/CPU hr.
(D) 40 failures/CPU hr.

18. Consider a project with the following functional units :
Number of user inputs = 50
Number of user outputs = 40
Number of user enquiries = 35
Number of user files = 06
Number of external interfaces = 04
Assuming all complexity adjustment factors and weighing factors as average, the function points for the project will be
(A) 135        (B) 722
(C) 675        (D) 672

19. Match the following :
List – I                                  List – II
a. Correctness           i. The extent to which a software tolerates the unexpected problems
b. Accuracy              ii. The extent to which a software  meets its specifications
c. Robustness           iii. The extent to which a software has specified functions
d. Completeness       iv. Meeting specifications with precision
Codes :
      a   b  c   d
(A) ii   iv   i   iii
(B) i   ii   iii   iv
(C) ii   i   iv   iii
(D) iv   ii   i   iii

20. Which one of the following is not a definition of error ?
(A) It refers to the discrepancy between a computed, observed or measured value and the true, specified or theoretically correct value.
(B) It refers to the actual output of  a software and the correct output.
(C) It refers to a condition that causes a system to fail.
(D) It refers to human action that results in software containing a defect or fault.

21. Which one of the following is not a key process area in CMM level 5 ?
(A) Defect prevention
(B) Process change management
(C) Software product engineering
(D) Technology change management

22. Consider the following relational schemas for a library database :
Book (Title, Author, Catalog_no, Publisher, Year, Price)
Collection(Title, Author, Catalog_no)
with the following functional dependencies :
I. Title, Author --> Catalog_no
II. Catalog_no --> Title, Author,Publisher, Year
III. Publisher, Title, Year --> Price

Assume (Author, Title) is the key for both schemas.
Which one of the following is true ?
(A) Both Book and Collection are in BCNF.
(B) Both Book and Collection are in 3NF.
(C) Book is in 2NF and Collection in 3NF.
(D) Both Book and Collection are in 2NF.

23. Specialization Lattice stands for
(A) An entity type can participate as a subclass in only one specialization.
(B) An entity type can participate as a subclass in more than one specialization.
(C) An entity type that can participate in one specialization.
(D) An entity type that can participate in one generalization.

24. Match the following :
     List – I                                                 List – II
a. Timeout ordering protocol            i. Wait for graph
b. Deadlock prevention                   ii. Roll back
c. Deadlock detection                     iii. Wait-die scheme
d. Deadlock recovery                     iv. Thomas Write Rule
Codes :
       a  b  c   d
(A) iv  iii   i   ii
(B) iii   ii  iv   i
(C) ii   i   iv   iii
(D) iii   i  iv   iii

25. Consider the schema R = {S, T, U, V} and 

the dependencies S —> T, T —> U, U —> V and V —> S If R = (R1 and R2) be a decomposition such that R1 R2 = Φ then the decomposition is
(A) not in 2NF
(B) in 2NF but not in 3NF
(C) in 3NF but not in 2NF
(D) in both 2NF and 3NF

26. Which one of the following is not a Client-Server application ?
(A) Internet chat            (B) Web browser
(C) E-mail                     (D) Ping

27. Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock :
I. 2-phase locking
II. Time phase ordering
(A) Both I & II
(B) II only
(C) I only
(D) Neither I nor II

28. Match the following :
       List – I                                         List – II
a. Expert systems                            i. Pragmatics
b. Planning                                      ii. Resolution
c. Prolog                                         iii. Means-end analysis
d. Natural language processing        iv. Explanation facility
Codes :
      a   b  c d
(A) iii   iv  i  ii
(B) iii   iv  ii  i
(C) i    ii   iii  iv
(D) iv  iii  ii   i

29. STRIPS addresses the problem of efficiently representing and implementation of a planner. It is not related to which one of the following ?
(A) SHAKEY
(B) SRI
(C) NLP
(D) None of these

30. Slots and facets are used in
(A) Semantic Networks
(B) Frames
(C) Rules
(D) All of these

31. Consider f(N) = g(N) + h(N) Where function g is a measure of the cost of getting from the start node to the current node N and h is an estimate of additional cost of getting from the current node N to the goal node. Then f(N) = h(N) is used in which one of the following algorithms ?
(A) A* algorithm
(B) AO* algorithm
(C) Greedy best first search algorithm
(D) Iterative A* algorithm

32. ________predicate calculus allows quantified variables to refer to objects in the domain of discourse and not to predicates or functions.
(A) Zero-order            (B) First-order
(C) Second-order        (D) High-order

33. ________ is used in game trees to reduce the number of branches of the search tree to be traversed without affecting the solution.
(A) Best first search
(B) Goal stack planning
(C) Alpha-beta pruning procedure
(D) Min-max search

34. Consider a uniprocessor system where new processes arrive at an average of five processes per minute and each process needs an average of 6 seconds of service time. What will be the CPU utilization ?
(A) 80 %        (B) 50 %
(C) 60 %        (D) 30 %

35. Consider a program that consists of 8 pages (from 0 to 7) and we have 4 page frames in the physical memory for the pages. The page reference string is :
1 2 3 2 5 6 3 4 6 3 7 3 1 5 3 6 3 4 2 4 3 4 5 1
The number of page faults in LRU and optimal page replacement algorithms are respectively (without including initial page faults to fill available page frames with pages) :
(A) 9 and 6         (B) 10 and 7
(C) 9 and 7         (D) 10 and 6

36. Which of the following statements is not true about disk-arm scheduling algorithms ?
(A) SSTF (shortest seek time first) algorithm increases performance of FCFS.
(B) The number of requests for disk service are not influenced by file allocation method.
(C) Caching the directories and index blocks in main memory can also help in reducing disk arm movements.
(D) SCAN and C-SCAN  algorithms are less likely to have a starvation problem.

37. _________ maintains the list of free disk blocks in the Unix file system.
(A) I-node
(B) Boot block
(C) Super block
(D) File allocation table

38. A part of Windows 2000 operating system that is not portable is
(A) Device Management
(B) Virtual Memory Management
(C) Processor Management
(D) User Interface

39. Match the following with reference to Unix shell scripts :
List – I                           List – II
a. $?                 i. File name of the current script
b. $#                ii. List of arguments
c. $0                iii. The number of arguments
d. $*                iv. Exit status of last command
Codes :
      a  b  c d
(A) iii  ii  i  iv
(B) ii  iii  i  iv
(C) iv iii  i  ii
(D) i   iii  i  iv

40. The advantage of _______ is that it can reference memory without paying the price of having a full memory address in the instruction.
(A) Direct addressing
(B) Indexed addressing
(C) Register addressing
(D) Register Indirect addressing

41. The reverse polish notation equivalent to the infix expression  ((A + B) * C + D)/(E + F + G)
(A) A B + C * D + EF + G + /
(B) A B + C D * + E F + G + /
(C) A B + C * D + E F G + +/
(D) A B + C * D + E + F G + /

42. The output of a sequential circuit depends on
(A) present input only
(B) past input only
(C) both present and past input
(D) past output only

43. A byte addressable computer has a memory capacity of 2m Kbytes and can perform 2n operations. An instruction involving 3 operands and one operator needs a maximum of
(A) 3m bits
(B) m + n bits
(C) 3m + n bits
(D) 3m + n + 30 bits

44. Which of the following flip-flops is free from race condition ?
(A) T flip-flop
(B) SR flip-flop
(C) Master-slave JK flip-flop
(D) None of the above

45. One of the main features that distinguish microprocessor from micro-computers is
(A) words are usually larger in microprocessors.
(B) words are shorter in microprocessors.
(C) microprocessor does not contain I/O devices.
(D) None of the above.

46. The output generated by the LINUX command :
$ seq 1 2 10 will be
(A) 1 2 10
(B) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(C) 1 3 5 7 9
(D) 1 5 10

47. All the classes necessary for windows programming are available in the module :
(A) win.txt      (B) win.main
(C) win.std     (D) MFC

48. Windows 32 API supports
(A) 16-bit Windows
(B) 32-bit Windows
(C) 64-bit Windows
(D) All of the above

49. Superficially the term “objectoriented”, means that, we organize software as a
(A) collection of continuous objects that incorporates both data structure and behaviour.
(B) collection of discrete objects that incorporates both discrete structure and behaviour.
(C) collection of discrete objects that incorporates both data structure and behaviour.
(D) collection of objects that incorporates both discrete data structure and behaviour.

50. The “part-whole”, or “a-part-of”, relationship in which objects representing the components of something associated with an object representing the entire assembly is called as
(A) Association
(B) Aggregation
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Generalisation

51. The pure object oriented programming language with extensive metadata available and modifiable at run time is
(A) Small talk      (B) C++
(C) Java             (D) Eiffel

52. Match the following interfaces of Java. Servlet package :
   List – I                              List – II
a. Servlet Config           i. Enables Servlets to log events
b. Servlet Context         ii. Read data from a client
c. Servlet Request        iii. Write data to a client
d. Servlet Response      iv. To get initialization parameters
Codes :
       a   b  c d
(A) iii   iv  ii  i
(B) iii   ii  iv  i
(C) ii   iii  iv  i
(D) iv   i  ii   iii

53. The syntax of capturing events method for document object is
(A) CaptureEvents()
(B) CaptureEvents(Orgs eventType)
(C) CaptureEvents(eventType)
(D) CaptureEvents(eventVal)


54. Linking to another place in the same or another webpage require two A (Anchor) tags, the first with the ________ attribute and the second with the _________ attribute.
(A) NAME & LINK
(B) LINK & HREF
(C) HREF & NAME
(D) TARGET & VALUE

55. Given an image of size 1024 × 1024 pixels in which intensity of each pixel is an 8-bit quality. It requires _______ of storage space if the image is not compressed.
(A) one Terabyte
(B) one Megabyte
(C) 8 Megabytes
(D) 8 Terabytes

56. Match the following cryptographic algorithms with their design issues :
     List – I              List – II
a. DES               i. Message Digest
b. AES              ii. Public Key
c. RSA             iii. 56-bit key
d. SHA-1         iv. 128-bit key
Codes :
      a  b  c  d
(A) ii  i   iv  iii
(B) iii  i   iv  ii
(C) iii  iv  ii  i
(D) iv  i   ii  iii

57. Consider a code with five valid code words of length ten :
0000000000, 0000011111, 1111100000, 1110000011, 1111111111
Hamming distance of the code is
(A) 5    (B) 10
(C) 8    (D) 9

58. Which of the following special cases does not require reformulation of the problem in order to obtain a solution ?
(A) Alternate optimality
(B) Infeasibility
(C) Unboundedness
(D) All of the above

59. The given maximization assignment problem can be converted into a minimization problem by
(A) subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.
(B) subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table.
(C) adding each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.
(D) adding maximum value of the table to each entry in the table.

60. The initial basic feasible solution of the following transportation problem :


 

 Ans: A
 
61. Given the following equalities :
E1 : nK+є  + nK  lg n = Ө(nK+є ) for all  fixed K and ∈, K ≥ 0 and ∈ > 0.
E2 : n32+ 6n23n = O(n32n)
 Which of the following is true ?
(A)
E1 is correct and E2 is correct.
(B)
E1 is correct and E2 is not correct.
(C)
E1 is not correct and E2 is correct.
(D)
E1 is not correct and E2 is not correct.

62. Consider the fractional knapsack instance n = 4, (p1, p2, p3, p4) = (10, 10, 12, 18), (w1, w2, w3, w4) = (2, 4, 6, 9) and M = 15. The maximum profit is given by (Assume p and w denotes profit and weight of objects respectively)
(A) 40        (B) 38
(C) 32        (D) 30

63. The solution of the recurrence relation of T(n) = 3T ( floor (n/4)) + n  is
(A) O(
n2)          (B) O(nlg n)
(C) O(n)            (D) O(l g n)

64. If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used to hash n keys into a table of size m, where n m, the expected number of collisions involving a particular key K is
(A) less than 1
(B) less than lg n
(C) greater than 1
(D) greater than lg n

65. Given the following statements :
S1 : The subgraph-isomorphism problem takes two graphs G1 and G2 and asks whether G1 is a subgraph of G2.
S2 : The set-partition problem takes as input a set S of numbers and asks whether the numbers can be partitioned into two sets A and  A'  = S – A such that 

              ∑x    =  ∑x 
           x A     x A'
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is NP problem and S2 is P problem.
(B) S1 is NP problem and S2 is NP problem.
(C) S1 is P problem and S2 is P problem.
(D) S1 is P problem and S2 is NP problem.

66. Suppose that the splits at every level of quicksort are in the proportion (1 –
α ) to a, where 0 < α ½ is a constant. The minimum depth of a leaf in the recursion tree is approximately given by
(A) – lgn / lg(1 –
α)
(B) – lg (1 –
α) / lgn
(C) – lgn / lg
α
(D) – lg
α / lgn

67. Ten signals, each requiring 3000 Hz, are multiplexed on to a single channel using FDM. How much minimum bandwidth is required for the multiplexed channel ? Assume that the guard bands are 300 Hz wide.
(A) 30,000
(B) 32,700
(C) 33,000
(D) None of the above

68. A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 bps terminals and ‘n’ 300 bps terminals connected to it. If the outgoing line is 9600 bps, what is the value of n ?
(A) 4         (B) 8
(C) 16       (D) 28

69. Which of the following is used in the options field of IPv4 ?
(A) Strict source routing
(B) Loose source routing
(C) time stamp
(D) All of the above

70. Which layers of the OSI reference model are host-to-host layers ?
(A) Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
(B) Network, Transport, Session, Presentation
(C) Data-link, Network, Transport, Session
(D) Physical, Data-link, Network, Transport

71. A network on the Internet has a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. What is the maximum number of hosts it can handle ?
(A) 1024          (B) 2048
(C) 4096          (D) 8192

72. Four bits are used for packed sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size ?
(A) 4         (B) 8
(C) 15       (D) 16

73. Given the following two grammars :
G1 : S —> AB | aaB
       A
—> a | Aa
       B
—> b
G2 : S
—> a S b S | b S a S | λ 
Which statement is correct ?
(A) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is unambiguous.
(B) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.
(C) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is unambiguous.
(D) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.

74. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Chomsky Normal form i. S
—> b S S | a S | c
b. Greibach Normal form ii. S
—> a S b | ab
c. S-grammar iii. S
—> AS | a A —> SA | b
d. LL grammar iv. S
—> a B S B B —> b
Codes :
       a    b  c  d
(A) iv   iii   i   ii
(B) iv   iii   ii   i
(C) iii   iv   i   ii
(D) iii   iv   ii   i

75. Given the following two languages :
L1 = {
anbn | n 1} {a}
L2 = {w C
wR | w {a, b}*}
Which statement is correct ?
(A) Both L1 and L2 are not deterministic.
(B) L1 is not deterministic and L2 is deterministic.
(C) L1 is deterministic and L2 is not deterministic.
(D) Both L1 and L2 are deterministic.