UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II June 2015

1. How many strings of 5 digits have the property that the sum of their digits is 7 ? 

(1) 66 (2) 330 (3) 495 (4) 99 

2. Consider an experiment of tossing two fair dice, one black and one red. What is the probability that the number on the black die divides the number on red die ? 

(1) 22/36 (2) 12/36  (3) 14/36  (4) 6/36 

3. In how many ways can 15 indistinguishable fish be placed into 5 different ponds, so that each pond contains atleast one fish ? 

(1) 1001 (2) 3876 (3) 775  (4) 200 

4. Consider the following statements : 

(a) Depth - first search is used to traverse a rooted tree. 

(b) Pre - order, Post-order and Inorder are used to list the vertices of an ordered rooted tree. 

(c) Huffman's algorithm is used to find an optimal binary tree with given weights. 

(d) Topological sorting provides a labelling such that the parents have larger labels than their children. 

Which of the above statements are true ?

(1) (a)and(b)

(2) (c) and (d) 

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

5. Consider a Hamiltonian Graph (G) with no loops and parallel edges. 

Which of the following is true with respect to this Graph (G) ? 

(a) deg(v)≥ n/2 for each vertex of G 

(b) |E(G)|≥ l/2(n-1)(n-2)+ 2edges 

(c) deg (v) + deg (w) ≥ n for every v and co not connected by an edge 

(1) (a)and(b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a), (b) and (c) 

 6. Consider the following statements : 

(a) Boolean expressions and logic networks correspond to labelled acyclic digraphs. 

(b) Optimal boolean expressions may not correspond to simplest networks. 

(c) Choosing essential blocks first in a Karnaugh map and then greedily choosing the largest remaining blocks to cover may not give an optimal expression. 

Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ? 

(1) (a) only

(2) (b) only 

(3) (a)and(b)

(4) (a), (b) and (c) 

7. Consider a full - adder with the following input values : 

(a) x = l, y = 0 and C_i (carry input) = 0 

(b) x = 0,y = l and C_i = l 

Compute the values of S(sum) and C_o(carry output) for the above input values. 

(1) S = l, C_o =0 and S= 0, C_o=l    (2) S = 0,C_o =0 and S= l, C_o =1 

(3) S = l, C_o = l and S= 0, C_o= 0  (4) S = 0,C_o = l and S= l, C_o = 0  

8. "If my computations are correct and I pay the electric bill, then I will run out of money. If I don't pay the electric bill, the power will be turned off. Therefore, if I don't run out of money and the power is still on, then my computations are incorrect."
Convert this argument into logical notations using the variables c, b, r, p for propositions of computations, electric bills, out of money and the power respectively. (Where ¬ means NOT) 

(1) if (c∧b)→r and ¬b→¬p, then (¬r∧p)→¬c 

(2) if (c∨b)→r and ¬b→¬p, then (r∧P)→c 

(3) if (c∧b)→r and ¬p→¬b, then (¬r∨p)→¬c 

(4) if (c∨b)→r and ¬b→¬p, then (¬r∧p)→¬c 

 9. Match the following : 

List-I                                                      List - II 

(a) (p→q)⇔(¬q→¬p)                         (i) Contrapositive 

(b) [(p∧q)→r]⇔[p→(q→r)]              (ii) Exportation law 

(C) (p→q)⇔[(p∧¬q)→o]                  (iii) Reductio ad absurdum 

(d) (p↔q)⇔[(p→q)∧(q→p)              (iv) Equivalence 

Codes : 

     (a) (b) (c) (d) 

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 

(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 

10. Consider a proposition given as: 

" x≥ 6, if x²≥ 25 and its proof as: 

If x≥6, then x² = x.x≥6-6 = 36≥25 

Which of the following is correct w.r.to the given proposition and its proof ? 

(a) The proof shows the converse of what is to be proved. 

(b) The proof starts by assuming what is to be shown. 

(c) The proof is correct and there is nothing wrong. 

(1) (a) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) 
(4) (b) only 

11. What is the output of the following program ? 

(Assume that the appropriate preprocessor directives are included and there is no syntax error) 

main () { 

 charS[]='ABCDEFGH"; 

 printf ("%C", * (& S[3])); 

 printf ("%s",S+ 4); 

 printf ("%u", S);

 /* Base address of S is 1000 */ } 

(1) ABCDEFGH1000

(2) CDEFGH1000 

(3) DDEFGHH1000

(4) DEFGH1000 

12. Which of the following, in C++, is inherited in a derived class from base class ? 

(1) constructor (2) destructor (3) data members (4) virtual methods 

13. Given that x = 7.5, j = P1.0, n = 1.0, m = 2.0 thevalueofPPx I j==x>n> = mis: 

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 

14. Which of the following is incorrect in C++ ? 

(1) When we write overloaded function we must code the function for each usage. 

(2) When we write function template we code the function only once. 

(3) It is difficult to debug macros 

(4) Templates are more efficient than macros 

15. When the inheritance is private, the private methods in base class are in the derived class (in C++). 

(1) inaccessible (2) accessible (3) protected (4) public 

 16. An Assertion is a predicate expressing a condition we wish database to always satisfy. The correct syntax for Assertion is: 

(1) CREATE ASSERTION 'ASSERTION Name' CHECK 'Predicate' 

(2) CREATE ASSERTION 'ASSERTION Name' 

(3) CREATE ASSERTION, CHECK Predicate 

(4) SELECT ASSERTION 

17. Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock ? 

(a) z - phase Locking 

(b) Time stamp - ordering 

(1) Both (a) and (b)

(2) (a) only 

(3) (b)only

(4) Neither (a) nor (b) 

18. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a Table referenced by constraint. 

(a) Primary key 

 (b) Sub key

(c) Super key

(d) Foreign key 

(1) (a)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) 

(3) (d)

(4) (a) and (d) 

19. Database applications were built directly on top of file system to overcome the following drawbacks of using file-systems: 

(a) Data redundancy and inconsistency 

(b) Difficulty in accessing Data 

(c) Data isolation 

(d) Integrity problems 

(1) (a)

(2) (a) and (d) 

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

20. For a weak entity set to be meaningful, it must be associated combination with some of their attribute values, is called as : 

(1) Neighbour Set (2) Strong Entity Set (3) Owner Entity Set (4) Weak Set 

21. Consider the given graph Its Minimum Cost Spanning Tree is . 

             

Ans: (2)

22. The inorder and preorder Traversal of binary Tree are dbeafcg and abdecfg respectively. The post-order Traversal is . 

(1)  dbefacg (2) debfagc (3) dbefcga (4) debfgca 

23. Level order Traversal of a rooted Tree can be done by starting from root and performing : 

(1) Breadth First Search (2) Depth First Search (3) Root Search (4) Deep Search 

 24. The average case occurs in the Linear Search Algorithm when : 

(1) The item to be searched is in some where middle of the Array 

(2) The item to be searched is not in the array 

(3) The item to be searched is in the last of the array 

(4) The item to be searched is either in the last or not in the array 

25. To determine the efficiency of an algorithm the time factor is measured by : 

(1) Counting micro seconds

(2) Counting number of key operations 

(3) Counting number of statements 

(4) Counting kilobytes of algorithm 

26. Which of the following protocols is an application layer protocol that establishes, manages and terminates multimedia sessions ? 

(1) Session Maintenance Protocol 

(2) Real - time Streaming Protocol 

(3) Real - time Transport Control Protocol 

(4) Session Initiation Protocol

 27. Match the following port numbers with their uses : 

 List-I                                        List-II 

(a) 23                                (i) World wide web 

(b) 25                                (ii) Remote Login 

(c) 80                                (iii) USENET news 

(d) 119                              (iv) E-mail 

Codes : 

      (a) (b) (c) (d) 

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 

(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 

28. Which of the following is not associated with the session layer ? 

(1) Dialog control (2) Token management (3) Semantics of the information transmitted (4) Synchronization 

29. What is the size of the 'total length' field in IPv 4 datagram ? 

(1) 4 bits (2) 8 bits (3) 16 bits (4) 32 bits 

30. Which of the following is/are restriction(s) in classless addressing ? 

(1) The number of addresses needs to be a power of 2. 

(2) The mask needs to be included in the address to define the block. 

(3) The starting address must be divisible by the number of addresses in the block. 

(4) All of the above 

31. Match the following : 

(a) Forward Reference Table          (i) Assembler directive 

(b) Mnemonic Table                       (ii) Uses array data structure 

(c) Segment Register Table             (iii) Contains machine OP code  

(d) EQU                                         (iv) Uses linked list data structure

Codes : 

     (a) (b) (c) (d) 

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 

(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 

(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 

32. The translator which performs macro calls expansion is called : 

(1) Macro processor (2) Micro pre - processor (3) Macro pre - processor (4) Dynamic Linker 

33. If all the production rules have single non - terminal symbol on the left side, the grammar defined is: 

(1) context free grammar (2) context sensitive grammar (3) unrestricted grammar (4) phrase grammar 

34. Which one from the following is false ? 

(1) LALR parser is Bottom - Up parser 

(2) A parsing algorithm which performs a left to right scanning and a right most deviation is RL (1). 

(3) LR parser is Bottom-Up parser. 

(4) In LL(1), the 1 indicates that there is a one - symbol look - ahead. 

35. Which phase of compiler generates stream of atoms ? 

(1) Syntax Analysis (2) Lexical Analysis (3) Code Generation (4) Code Optimization 

 36. A disk drive has 100 cyclinders, numbered 0 to 99. Disk requests come to the disk driver for cyclinders 12, 26, 24, 4, 42, 8 and 50 in that order. The driver is currently serving a request at cyclinder 24. A seek takes 6 msec per cyclinder moved. How much seek time is needed for shortest seek time first (SSTF) algorithm ? 

(1) 0.984 sec (2) 0.396 sec (3) 0.738 sec (4) 0.42 sec 

37. Let R and P be two processes, R be the set of variables read from memory, and W be the set of variables3 written to memory. For the concurrent execution of two processes P. and P which of the following conditions is not true ? 

 (1) R(Pi)nW(P) S 0 (2) W(Pi)nR(P) S 0 (3) R(Pi)nR(Pjj S 0 (4) W(P;) n W(r>) S O 

38. A LRU page replacement is used with four page frames and eight pages. How many page faults will occur with the reference string 0172327103 if the four frames are initially empty ? 

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 8 

39. What does the following command do? grep Pvn"abc"* 

(1) It will print all of the lines in the file x that match the search string "abc". 

(2) It will print all of the lines in file x that do not match the search string "abc". 

(3) It will print the total number of lines in the file x that match the string "abc". 

(4) It will print the specific line numbers of the file x in which there is a match for string "abc". 

40. The Unix Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes, the process table and the user structure. Which of the following information is not the part of user structure ? 

(1) File descriptor table (2) System call state (3) Scheduling parameters (4) Kernel stack 

41. Match the following : 

(a) Size-oriented metrics        (i)  uses number of external interfaces as one of the measurement parameter. 

(b) Function-oriented             (ii) originally designed to be applied to business information metrics systems. 

(c) Extended Function           (iii) derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity Point metrics measures by considering the size of the software. 

(d) Function point                 (iv) uses algorithm characteristics as one of the measurement parameter. 

Codes : 

     (a) (b) (c) (d) 

(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 

(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 

(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 

 42. In which testing strategy requirements established during requirements analysis are validated against developed software ? 

(1) Validation testing (2) Integration testing (3) Regression testing (4) System testing 

43. Which process model is also called as classic life cycle model ? 

(1) Waterfall model (2) RAD model (3) Prototyping model (4) Incremental model 

44. Cohesion is an extension of: 

(1) Abstraction concept (2) Refinment concept (3) Information hiding concept (4) Modularity 

45. Which one from the following is highly associated activity of project planning ?

(1) Keep track of the project progress.

(2) Compare actual and planned progress and costs.

(3) Identify the activities, milestones and deliverables produced by a project. 

(4) Both (2) and (3).

 46. In the case of parallelization, Amdahl's law states that if P is the proportion of a program that can be made parallel and (1PP) is the proportion that cannot be parallelized, then the maximum speed-up that can be achieved by using N processors is : 

(1) 1/(1-P) + N.P  (2) 1/ (N - 1)P + P    (3) 1/(1 - P) +P/ N       (4) 1/ P + (1-P)/N 

47. Which of the following statements is incorrect for Parallel Virtual Machine (PVM) ? 

(1) The PVM communication model provides asynchronous blocking send, asynchronous blocking receive, and non-blocking receive function. 

(2) Message buffers are allocated dynamically. 

(3) The PVM communication model assumes that any task can send a message to any other PVM task and that there is no limit to the size or number of such messages. 

(4) In PVM model, the message order is not preserved. 

 48. Which of the following algorithms sort n integers, having the range 0 to (n2 -1), in ascending order in O(n) time? 

(1) Selection sort 

 (2) Bubble sort

(3) Radix sort

(4) Insertion sort 

49. Which of the following statements is FALSE about weak entity set ? 

(1) Weak entities can be deleted automatically when their strong entity is deleted. 

(2) Weak entity set avoids the data duplication and consequent possible inconsistencies caused by duplicating the key of the strong entity. 

(3) A weak entity set has no primary keys unless attributes of the strong entity set on which it depends are included. 

(4) Tuples in a weak entity set are not partitioned according to their relationship with tuples in a strong entity set. 

50. Which of the following is not valid with reference to Message Passing Interface (MPI) ? 

(1) MPI can run on any hardware platform. 

(2) The programming model is a distributed memory model. 

(3) All parallelism is implicit. 

(4) MPI - Comm - Size returns the total number of MPI processes in specified communication.

UGC NET Solved Paper -I June 2015

UGC NET Solved Paper -I June 2015

1. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability ?
(1) Knowing (2) Understanding (3) Analysing (4) Evaluating

2. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching ?
(1) Teacher's knowledge
(2) Class room activities that encourage learning
(3) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
(4) Learning through experience

3. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct ?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

4. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include :
(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture
(c) Group work
(d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

5. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of :
(1) Making selections for a specific job
(2) Selecting candidates for a course
(3) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
(4) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching

6. A good teacher is one who:
(1) gives useful information
(2) explains concepts and principles
(3) gives printed notes to students
(4) inspires students to learn

7. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct ?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

8. A good thesis writing should involve :
(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.
(b) careful checking of references.
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) a clear and well written abstract.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

9. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his :
(1) Fundamental Research (2) Applied Research
(3) Action Research (4) Evaluation Research

10. "Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test." This statement
indicates a :
(1) research hypothesis (2) null hypothesis
(3) directional hypothesis (4) statistical hypothesis

11. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other
situations ?
(1) Historical Research (2) Descriptive Research
(3) Experimental Research (4) Causal Comparative Research

12. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire ?
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.
(b) Review of the current literature.
(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 13 to 18.

Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what makes us Human.
Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings : "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being led by those who call themselves "rational optimists". They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the 'Practical Possibles', who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed. What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.

 

Answer the following questions :

13. Our knowledge is a collection of:
(1) all stories that we have heard during our life-time
(2) some stories that we remember
(3) a few stories that survive
(4) some important stories

14. Story telling is:
(1) an art    (2) a science    (3) in our genes     (4) the essence of what makes us human

15. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories ?
(1) We collectively choose to believe in
(2) Which are repeatedly narrated
(3) Designed to spread fear and tension
(4) Designed to make prophecy

16. Rational optimists :
(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 
(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (b) and (c) only

17. Humans become less selfish when:
(1) they work in large groups
(2) they listen to frightening stories
(3) they listen to cheerful stories
(4) they work in solitude

18. 'Practical Possibles' are the ones who :
(1) follow Midway Path (2) are doom-mongers
(3) are self-centred (4) are cheerful and carefree

19. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following ?
(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) 
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

20. Assertion (A) : Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.
Reason (R) : Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of information.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct

21. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication ?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

22. The term 'grapevine' is also known as :
(1) Downward communication
(2) Informal communication
(3) Upward communication
(4) Horizontal communication

23. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication ?
(1) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(2) Participation of the audience
(3) One-way transfer of information

(4) Strategic use of grapevine
24. In communication, the language is :
(1) The verbal code (2) Intrapersonal
(3) The symbolic code (4) The non-verbal code

25. The next term in the series is:
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(1) 73 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 80

26. In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of HOTELS will be :
(1) LEQIBP (2) ELQBIP (3) LEBIQP (4) ELIPQB

27. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight ?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 30

28. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is
related to the girl as:
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Son

29. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students who have :
passed in all five subjects                           =  5583
passed in three subjects only                    =  1400
passed in two subjects only                       =  1200
passed in one subject only                         =  735
failed in English only                                  =  75
failed in Physics only                                 =  145
failed in Chemistry only                            =  140
failed in Mathematics only                       =   200
failed in Bio-science only                          =   157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is :
(1) 6300 (2) 6900 (3) 7300 (4) 7900

30. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than his wife. After
3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the person's wife after 5 years will
be:
(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 45 (4) 50

31. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the
type:
(1) Inductive (2) Deductive (3) Demonstrative (4) Physiological

32. A deductive argument is invalid if:
(1) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(2) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(3) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
(4) Its premises and conclusions are all true

33. Inductive reasoning is grounded on :
(1) Integrity of nature (2) Unity of nature
(3) Uniformity of nature (4) Harmony of nature

34. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them :
Statements :
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes :
(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) 
(4) (b) and (c)

35. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ?
Select the code :
Statements :
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)

36. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition
is called:
(1) Stipulative
(2) Theoretical
(3) Lexical
(4) Persuasive
Codes:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Question numbers 37 to 42 are based on the tabulated data given below :
A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of them :

S.No	Age (in years)	Salary (in Thousand rupees per month)	S.no	Age (in years)	Salary (in Thousand rupees per month)
1.	44	35	11.	33	30
2.	32	20	12.	31	35
3.	54	45	13.	30	35
4.	42	35	14.	37	40
5.	31	20	15.	44	45
6.	53	60	16.	36	35
7.	42	50	17.	34	35
8.	51	55	18.	49	50
9.	34	25	19.	43	45
10.	41	30	20.	45	50

37. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary ?
(1) 35-40 years (2) 40 - 45 years (3) 45 - 50 years (4) 50 - 55 years

38. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30 - 35 years ?
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35%

39. What is the average age of the employees ?
(1) 40.3 years (2) 38.6 years (3) 47.2 years (4) 45.3 years

40. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary >= 40,000 per month ?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 35% (4) 32%

41. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40 - 50 years ?
(1) 35 (2) 42.5 (3) 40.5 (4) 36.5

42. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of all the employees?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 47%

43. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as :
(1) Protection (2) Detection (3) Encryption (4) Decryption

44. Which of the following is not an output device ?
(1) Printer (2) Speaker (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard

45. Which of the following represents one billion characters ?
(1) Kilobyte (2) Megabyte (3) Gigabyte (4) Terabyte

46. Which of the following is not open source software ?
(1) Internet explorer (2) Fedora Linux
(3) Open office (4) Apache HTTP server

47. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25 ?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011

48. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting ?
(1) Altavista (2) MAC (3) Microsoft Office (4) Google Talk

49. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum ?
(1) USA (2) European Union
(3) China (4) India

50. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(1) -3% (2) -6% (3) -10% (4) -15%

51. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately :
(1) ~8 (2) -16 (3) -32 (4) -64

52. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources ?
(1) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(2) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(3) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
(4) Oil, forests and tides

53. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included ?
(1) Carbon monoxide (2) Fine particulate matter
(3) Ozone (4) Chlorofluorocarbons

54. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(1) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(2) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(3) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
(4) Population, forest cover and land available per person

55. The session of the parliament is summoned by :
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

56. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on :
(1) 21st April (2) 24th April (3) 21st June (4) 7th July

57. The South Asia University is situated in the city of :
(1) Colombo (2) Dhaka (3) New Delhi (4) Kathmandu

58. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims ?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

59. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent (3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent

60. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was :
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II Dec 2014

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. Consider a set A = {1, 2, 3, …….., 1000}. How many members of A shall be divisible by  3 or by 5 or by both 3 and 5 ?
(A) 533    (B) 599
(C) 467    (D) 66

2. A certain tree has two vertices of degree 4, one vertex of degree 3 and one vertex of degree 2. If the other vertices have degree 1, how many vertices are there in the graph ?
(A) 5             (B) n – 3
(C) 20          (D) 11

3. Consider the Graph shown below :

 This graph is a __________.
(A) Complete Graph          (B) Bipartite Graph
(C) Hamiltonian Graph       (D) All of the above

4. A computer program selects an integer in the set {k : 1 ≤ k ≤ 10,00,000} at random and prints out the result. This process is repeated 1 million times. What is the probability that the value k = 1 appears in the printout atleast once ?
(A) 0.5               (B) 0.704
(C) 0.632121    (D) 0.68

5. If we define the functions f, g and h that map R into R by :
 f(x) =x ⁴ , g(x) =√ x ² + 1 ,  h(x) =x ² + 72, then the value of the composite functions ho(gof) and (hog)of are given as
(A) x ⁸ – 71 and x ⁸ – 71            (B) x ⁸ – 73 and x ⁸ – 73
(C) x ⁸ + 71 and x ⁸ + 71           (D) x ⁸ + 73 and x ⁸+ 73

6. The BCD adder to add two decimal digits needs minimum of
(A) 6 full adders and 2 half adders
(B) 5 full adders and 3 half adders
(C) 4 full adders and 3 half adders
(D) 5 full adders and 2 half adders

7. The Excess-3 decimal code is a self-complementing code because
(A) The binary sum of a code and its 9’s complement is equal to 9.
(B) It is a weighted code.
(C) Complement can be generated by inverting each bit pattern.
(D) The binary sum of a code and its 10’s complement is equal to 9.

8. How many PUSH and POP operations will be needed to evaluate the following expression by reverse polish notation in a stack machine (A * B) + (C * D/E) ?
(A) 4 PUSH and 3 POP instructions           (B) 5 PUSH and 4 POP instructions
(C) 6 PUSH and 2 POP instructions           (D) 5 PUSH and 3 POP instructions

9. The range of representable normalized numbers in the floating point binary fractional representation in a 32-bit word with 1-bit sign, 8-bit excess 128 biased exponent and 23-bit mantissa is
(A) 2 ^-128 to (1 – 2 ^-23) × 2 ¹²⁷             (B) (1 – 2 ^-23) × 2 ¹²⁷ to 2 ¹²⁸
(C) (1 – 2 ^-23) × 2 ^-127 to 2 ²³               (D) 2 ^-129 to (1 – 2 ^-23) × 2 ¹²⁷

10. The size of the ROM required to build an 8-bit adder/ subtractor with mode control, carry input, carry output and two’s complement overflow output is given as

(A) 2¹⁶ × 8            (B) 2¹⁸ × 10
(C) 2¹⁶ × 10          (D) 2¹⁸ × 8

11. What will be the output of the following ‘C’ code ?
main ( )
{ int x = 128;
printf (“\n%d”, 1 + x ++);
}
(A) 128         (B) 129
(C) 130         (D) 131

12. What does the following expression means ?
char *(*(* a[N]) ( )) ( );
(A) a pointer to a function returning array of n pointers to function returning character pointers.
(B) a function return array of N pointers to functions returning pointers to characters
(C) an array of n pointers to function returning pointers to characters
(D) an array of n pointers to function returning pointers to functions returning pointers to characters.

13. Which of the following is not a member of class ?
(A) Static function                (B) Friend function
(C) Const function               (D) Virtual function

14. When an array is passed as parameter to a function, which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The function can change values in the original array.
(B) In C, parameters are passed by value, the function cannot change the original value in the array.
(C) It results in compilation error when the function tries to access the elements in the array.
(D) Results in a run time error when the function tries to access the elements in the array

15. Which of the following differentiates between overloaded functions and overridden functions ?
(A) Overloading is a dynamic or runtime binding and overridden is a static or compile time binding.
(B) Overloading is a static or compile time binding and overriding is dynamic or runtime binding.
(C) Redefining a function in a friend class is called overloading, while redefining a function in a derived class is called as overridden function.
(D) Redefining a function in a derived class is called function overloading, while redefining a function in a friend class is called function overriding.

16. Division operation is ideally suited to handle queries of the type :
(A) customers who have no account in any of the branches in Delhi.
(B) customers who have an account at all branches in Delhi.
(C) customers who have an account in atleast one branch in Delhi.
(D) customers who have only joint account in any one branch in Delhi

17. Which of the following is true ?
I. Implementation of self-join is possible in SQL with table alias.
II. Outer-join operation is basic operation in relational algebra.
III. Natural join and outer join operations are equivalent.
(A) I and II are correct.           (B) II and III are correct.
(C) Only III is correct.             (D) Only I is correct.

18. What kind of mechanism is to be taken into account for converting a weak entity set into strong entity set in entity-relationship diagram ?
(A) Generalization         (B) Aggregation
(C) Specialization         (D) Adding suitable attributes

19. The best normal form of relation scheme R(A, B, C, D) along with the set of functional dependencies 

F = {AB →  C, AB → D, C → A, D → B} is

(A) Boyce-Codd Normal form    (B) Third Normal form
(C) Second Normal form            (D) First Normal form

20. Identify the minimal key for relational scheme R(A, B, C, D, E) with functional dependencies 

F = {A → B, B → C, AC → D}
(A) A            (B) AE
(C) BE          (D) CE

21. Convert the following infix expression into its equivalent post fix expression
(A + B^ D) / (E – F) + G
(A) ABD^ + EF – / G+                        (B) ABD + ^EF – / G+
(C) ABD + ^EF / – G+                        (D) ABD^ + EF / – G+

22. You have to sort a list L, consisting of a sorted list followed by a few ‘random’ elements. Which of the following sorting method would be most suitable for such a task ?
(A) Bubble sort            (B) Selection sort
(C) Quick sort            (D) Insertion sort

23. The directory can be viewed as ________ that translates filenames into their directory entries.
(A) Symbol table               (B) Partition
(C) Swap space                (D) Cache

24. Consider an array A[20, 10], assume 4 words per memory cell and the base address of array A is 100. What is the address of A[11, 5] ? Assume row major storage.
(A) 560              (B) 565
(C) 570              (D) 575

25. A full binary tree with n leaves contains
(A) n nodes                   (B) log₂ n nodes
(C) 2n –1 nodes           (D) 2 ⁿ  nodes

26. The period of a signal is 10 ms. What is its frequency in Hertz ?
(A) 10                (B) 100
(C) 1000            (D) 10000

27. In a classful addressing, first four bits in Class A IP address is
(A) 1010             (B) 1100
(C) 1011             (D) 1110

28. Which of the following algorithms is not a broadcast routing algorithm ?
(A) Flooding                                     (B) Multidestination routing
(C) Reverse path forwarding             (D) All of the above

29. An analog signal has a bit rate of 6000 bps and a baud rate of 2000 baud. How many data elements are carried by each signal element ?
(A) 0.336 bits/baud                    (B) 3 bits/baud
(C) 120,00,000 bits/baud           (D) None of the above

30. How many distinct stages are there in DES algorithm, which is parameterized by a 56-bit key ?
(A) 16           (B) 17
(C) 18          (D) 19

31. Shift-Reduce parsers perform the following :
(A) Shift step that advances in the input stream by K(K > 1) symbols and Reduce step that applies a completed grammar rule to some recent parse trees, joining them together as one tree with a new root symbol.
(B) Shift step that advances in the input stream by one symbol and Reduce step that applies a completed grammar rule to some recent parse trees, joining them together as one tree with a new root symbol.
(C) Shift step that advances in the input stream by K(K = 2) symbols and Reduce step that applies a completed grammar rule to form a single tree.
(D) Shift step that does not advance in the input stream and Reduce step that applies a completed grammar rule to form a single tree.

32. Which of the following is true ?
(A) Canonical LR parser is LR (1) parser with single look ahead terminal
(B) All LR(K) parsers with K > 1 can be transformed into LR(1) parsers.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

33. In a two-pass assembler, symbol table is
(A) Generated in first pass
(B) Generated in second pass
(C) Not generated at all
(D) Generated and used only in second pass

34. Debugger is a program that
(A) allows to examine and modify the contents of registers
(B) does not allow execution of a segment of program 

(C) allows to set breakpoints, execute a segment of program and display contents of register
(D) All of the above

35. The following Context-Free Grammar (CFG) :
S → aB | bA
A → a | as | bAA
B → b | bs | aBB
will generate
(A) odd numbers of a’s and odd numbers of b’s
(B) even numbers of a’s and even numbers of b’s
(C) equal numbers of a’s and b’s
(D) different numbers of a’s and b’s

36. Consider the following justifications for commonly using the two-level CPU scheduling :
I. It is used when memory is too small to hold all the ready processes.
II. Because its performance is same as that of the FIFO.
III. Because it facilitates putting some set of processes into memory and a choice is made from that.
IV. Because it does not allow to adjust the set of in-core processes.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) I, III and IV        (B) I and II
(C) III and IV           (D) I and III

37. A specific editor has 200 K of program text, 15 K of initial stack, 50 K of initialized data, and 70 K of bootstrap code. If five editors are started simultaneously, how much physical memory is needed if shared text is used ?
(A) 1135 K            (B) 335 K
(C) 1065 K            (D) 320 K

38. Which of the following conditions does not hold good for a solution to a critical section problem ?
(A) No assumptions may be made about speeds or the number of CPUs.
(B) No two processes may be simultaneously inside their critical sections.
(C) Processes running outside its critical section may block other processes.
(D) Processes do not wait forever to enter its critical section.

39. For the implementation of a paging scheme, suppose the average process size be x bytes, the page size be y bytes, and each page entry requires z bytes. The optimum page size that minimizes the total overhead due to the page table and the internal fragmentation loss is given by
(A)  x /2                    (B) xz / 2
(C) √ 2xz                 (D) √ xz   / 2

40. In a demand paging memory system, page table is held in registers. The time taken to service a page fault is 8 m.sec. if an empty frame is available or if the replaced page is not modified, and it takes 20 m.secs., if the replaced page is modified. What is the average access time to service a page fault assuming that the page to be replaced is modified 70% of the time ?
(A) 11.6 m.sec.          (B) 16.4 m.sec.
(C) 28 m.sec.             (D) 14 m.sec.

41. __________ are applied throughout the software process.
(A) Framework activities           (B) Umbrella activities
(C) Planning activities                (D) Construction activities

42. Requirement Development, Organizational Process Focus, Organizational Training, Risk Management and Integrated Supplier Management are process areas required to achieve maturity level
(A) Performed
(B) Managed
(C) Defined
(D) Optimized

43. The software _________ of a program or a computing system is the structure or structures of the system, which comprise software components, the externally visible properties of those components, and the relationships among them.
(A) Design
(B) Architecture
(C) Process
(D) Requirement

44. Which one of the following set of attributes should not be encompassed by effective software metrics ?
(A) Simple and computable
(B) Consistent and objective
(C) Consistent in the use of units and dimensions
(D) Programming language dependent

45. Which one of the following is used to compute cyclomatic complexity ?
(A) The number of regions – 1
(B) E – N + 1, where E is the number of flow graph edges and N is the number of flow graph nodes.
(C) P – 1, where P is the number of predicate nodes in the flow graph G.
(D) P + 1, where P is the number of predicate nodes in the flow graph G.

46. Consider the following statements S1 and S2 :
S1 : A hard handover is one in which the channel in the source cell is retained and used for a while in parallel with the channel in the target cell.
S2 : A soft handover is one in which the channel in the source cell is released and only then the channel in the target cell is engaged.
(A) S1 is true and S2 is not true.    (B) S1 is not true and S2 is true.
(C) Both S1 and S2 are true.         (D) Both S1 and S2 are not true.

47. Fact-less fact table in a data warehouse contains
(A) only measures                   (B) only dimensions
(C) keys and measures            (D) only surrogate keys

48. Which e-business model allows consumers to name their own price for products and services ?
(A) B2 B                 (B) B2 G
(C) C2 C                 (D) C2 B

49. __________ model is designed to bring prices down by increasing the number of customers who buy a particular product at once.
(A) Economic Order Quantity     (B) Inventory
(C) Data Mining                         (D) Demand-Sensitive Pricing

50. Match the following :
List – I                                                                           List – II
a. Call control protocol               i. Interface between Base Transceiver Station (BTS) and Base Station 

                                                     Controller (BSC)
b. A-bis                                      ii. Spread spectrum
c. BSMAP                                 iii. Connection management
d. CDMA                                  iv. Works between Mobile Switching Centre (MSC) and Base Station        

                                                       Subsystem (BSS)
Codes :
      a   b   c  d
(A) iii   iv  i   ii
(B) iii   i   iv  ii
(C) i   ii   iii   iv
(D) iv  iii  ii   i

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -III Dec 2014

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. A hierarchical memory system that uses cache memory has cache access time of 50 nano seconds, main memory access time of 300 nano seconds, 75% of memory requests are for read, hit ratio of 0.8 for read access and the write-through scheme is used. What will be the average access time of the system both for read and write requests ?
(A) 157.5 n.sec.         (B) 110 n.sec.
(C) 75 n.sec.              (D) 82.5 n.sec.

2. For switching from a CPU user mode to the supervisor mode following type of interrupt is most appropriate
(A) Internal interrupts          (B) External interrupts
(C) Software interrupts        (D) None of the above

3. In a dot matrix printer the time to print a character is 6 m.sec., time to space in between characters is 2 m.sec., and the number of characters in a line are 200. The printing speed of the dot matrix printer in characters per second and the time to print a character line are given by which of the following options ?
(A) 125 chars/second and 0.8 seconds
(B) 250 chars/second and 0.6 seconds
(C) 166 chars/second and 0.8 seconds
(D) 250 chars/second and 0.4 seconds
NOTE: All the above options are wrong.  The correct answer should be 125 chars/second and 1.6 seconds
(Question paper setters are always lethargic, this is not the first time, every time they repeat. incapable fellows. only the aspirants are put into trouble)

4. Match the following 8085 instructions with the flags :
       List – I                   List – II
a. XCHG                     i. only carry flag is affected.
b. SUB                        ii. no flags are affected.
c. STC                        iii. all flags other than carry flag are affected.
d. DCR                       iv. all flags are affected.
Codes :
       a  b c  d
(A) iv  i   iii  ii
(B) iii   ii  i  iv
(C) ii   iii  i  iv
(D) ii   iv  i  iii

5. How many times will the following loop be executed ?
           LXI B, 0007 H
LOP : DCX B
          MOV A, B
          ORA C
          JNZ LOP
(A) 05          (B) 07
(C) 09          (D) 00

6. Specify the contents of the accumulator and the status of the S, Z and CY flags when 8085 microprocessor performs addition of 87 H and 79 H.
(A) 11, 1, 1, 1             (B) 10, 0, 1, 0
(C) 01, 1, 0, 0             (D) 00, 0, 1, 1

7. Location transparency allows :
I. Users to treat the data as if it is done at one location.
II. Programmers to treat the data as if it is at one location.
III. Managers to treat the data as if it is at one location.
Which one of the following is correct ?
(A) I, II and III              (B) I and II only
(C) II and III only          (D) II only

8. Which of the following is correct ?
I. Two phase locking is an optimistic protocol.
II. Two phase locking is pessimistic protocol
III. Time stamping is an optimistic protocol.
IV. Time stamping is pessimistic protocol.
(A) I and III            (B) II and IV
(C) I and IV            (D) II and III

9. __________ rules used to limit the volume of log information that has to be handled and processed in the event of system failure involving the loss of volatile information.

(A) Write-ahead log           (B) Check-pointing
(C) Log buffer                    (D) Thomas

10. Let R = ABCDE is a relational scheme with functional dependency set F = {A → B, B → C, AC → D}. The attribute closures of A and E are
(A) ABCD, φ           (B) ABCD, E
(C) Φ, φ                  (D) ABC, E

11. Consider the following statements :
I. Re-construction operation used in mixed fragmentation satisfies commutative rule.
II. Re-construction operation used in vertical fragmentation satisfies commutative rule
Which of the following is correct ?
(A) I                                (B) II
(C) Both are correct        (D) None of the statements are correct.

12. Which of the following is false ?
(A) Every binary relation is never be in BCNF.
(B) Every BCNF relation is in 3NF.
(C) 1 NF, 2 NF, 3 NF and BCNF are based on functional dependencies.

(D) Multivalued Dependency (MVD) is a special case of Join Dependency (JD).

13. Which of the following categories of languages do not refer to animation languages ?
(A) Graphical languages         (B) General-purpose languages
(C) Linear-list notations          (D) None of the above

14. Match the following :
     List – I                                      List – II
a. Tablet, Joystick                     i. Continuous devices
b. Light Pen, Touch Screen       ii. Direct devices
c. Locator, Keyboard               iii. Logical devices
d. Data Globe, Sonic Pen         iv. 3D interaction devices
Codes :
      a  b  c  d
(A) ii   i  iv  iii
(B) i   iv  iii  ii
(C) i   ii   iii  iv
(D) iv  iii  ii   i

15. A technique used to approximate halftones without reducing spatial resolution is known as _________.
(A) Halftoning          (B) Dithering
(C) Error diffusion    (D) None of the above

16. Consider a triangle represented by A(0, 0), B(1, 1), C(5, 2). The triangle is rotated by 45 degrees about a point P(–1, –1). The co-ordinates of the new triangle obtained after rotation shall be _______
(A) A' ( –1,√ 2 –1),  B'( –1, 2√2 –1), C' (3/2 √2 –1, 9/2 √2 –1)

(B) A' (√ 2 –1,-1),  B'( 2√2 –1, –1) , C' (3/2 √2 –1, 9/2 √2 –1)

(C) A' ( –1,√ 2 –1),  B'( 2√2 –1,–1), C' (3/2 √2 –1, 9/2 √2 –1)

(D) A' ( –1,√ 2 –1),  B'( 2√2 –1,–1), C' (9/2 √2 –1, 3/2 √2 –1)

17. In Cyrus-Beck algorithm for line clipping the value of t parameter is computed by the relation :
(Here P1 and P2 are the two end points of the line, f is a point on the boundary, ni  is inner normal)
(A) (P1 – fi) .ni /  (P2 – P1) . ni             (B) (fi – P1) . ni / (P2 – P1) . ni
(C) (P2 – fi) . ni / (P1 – P2) . ni             (D) (fi – P2) . ni / (P1 – P2) . ni

18. Match the following :
a. Cavalier Projection                 i. The direction of projection is chosen so that there is no foreshortening of

                                                     lines perpendicular to the xy plane.
b. Cabinet Projection                 ii. The direction of projection is chosen so that lines perpendicular to the xy

                                                     planes are foreshortened by half their lengths.
c. Isometric Projection               iii. The direction of projection makes equal angles with all of the principal

                                                      axis.
d. Orthographic Projection         iv. Projections are characterized by the fact that the direction of projection 

                                                      is perpendicular to the view plane.
Codes :
      a  b   c  d
(A) i  iii   iv   ii
(B) ii  iii   i   iv
(C) iv  ii  iii   i
(D) i   ii  iii   iv

19. Consider the following statements S1, S2 and S3 :
S1 : In call-by-value, anything that is passed into a function call is unchanged in the caller’s scope when the function returns.
S2 : In call-by-reference, a function receives implicit reference to a variable used as argument.
S3 : In call-by-reference, caller is unable to see the modified variable used as argument.
(A) S3 and S2 are true. (B) S3 and S1 are true.
(C) S2 and S1 are true. (D) S1, S2, S3 are true.

20. How many tokens will be generated by the scanner for the following statement ?
x = x * (a + b) – 5;
(A) 12     (B) 11
(C) 10     (D) 07

21. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) MPI_Isend and MPI_Irecv are non-blocking message passing routines of MPI.
(B) MPI_Issend and MPI_Ibsend are non-blocking message passing routines of MPI.
(C) MPI_Send and MPI_Recv are non-blocking message passing routines of MPI.
(D) MPI_Ssend and MPI_Bsend are blocking message passing routines of MPI.

22. The pushdown automation M = ({q0, q1, q2}, {a, b}, {0, 1}, δ, q0, 0, {q0}) with

δ(q0, a, 0) = {(q1, 10)}
δ(q1, a, 1) = {(q1, 11)}
δ(q1, b, 1) = {(q2, λ)}
δ(q2, b, 1) = {(q2, λ)}
δ(q2, λ, 0) = {(q0, λ)}
Accepts the language
(A) L = {a ⁿ b ^m) | n, m ≥ 0}     (B) L = {a ⁿ bⁿ⁾ | n ≥ 0}
(C) L = {a ⁿ b ^m) | n, m > 0}     (D) L = {a ⁿ bⁿ⁾ | n > 0}

23. Given two languages :
L1 = {(ab) ⁿ a ^k  | n > k, k ≥  0}
L2 = {a ⁿ b ^m) | n ≠ m}
Using pumping lemma for regular language, it can be shown that
(A) L1 is regular and L2 is not regular.
(B) L1 is not regular and L2 is regular.
(C) L1 is regular and L2 is regular.
(D) L1 is not regular and L2 is not regular.

24. Regular expression for the complement of language L = {a ⁿ b ^m  | n  ≥ 4, m ≤ 3} is
(A) (a + b)* ba(a + b)*
(B) a* bbbbb*
(C) (λ + a + aa + aaa)b* + (a + b)* ba(a + b)*
(D) None of the above

25. For n devices in a network, ________ number of duplex-mode links are required for a mesh topology.
(A) n(n + 1)              (B) n (n – 1)
(C) n(n + 1)/2           (D) n(n – 1)/2

26. How many characters per second (7 bits + 1 parity) can be transmitted over a 3200 bps line if the transfer is asynchronous ? (Assuming 1 start bit and 1 stop bit)
(A) 300         (B) 320
(C) 360         (D) 400

27. Which of the following is not a field in TCP header ?
(A) Sequence number    (B) Fragment offset
(C) Checksum               (D) Window size

28. What is the propagation time if the distance between the two points is 48,000 ? Assume the propagation speed to be 2.4 × 10⁸ metre/second in cable.
(A) 0.5 ms        (B) 20 ms
(C) 50 ms         (D) 200 ms

29. __________ is a bit-oriented protocol for communication over point-to-point and multipoint links.
(A) Stop-and-wait         (B) HDLC
(C) Sliding window        (D) Go-back-N

30. Which one of the following is true for asymmetric-key cryptography ?
(A) Private key is kept by the receiver and public key is announced to the public.
(B) Public key is kept by the receiver and private key is announced to the public.
(C) Both private key and public key are kept by the receiver.
(D) Both private key and public key are announced to the public.

31. Any decision tree that sorts n elements has height
(A) Ω(n)                 (B)  Ω(lgn)
(C)  Ω(nlgn)            (D)  Ω(n²)

32. Match the following :
            List – I                               List – II
a. Bucket sort                             i. O(n³lgn)
b. Matrix chain multiplication       ii. O(n³)
c. Huffman codes                       iii. O(nlgn)
d. All pairs shortest paths           iv. O(n)
Codes :
      a  b c  d
(A) iv  ii  i  iii
(B) ii  iv  i  iii
(C) iv  ii  iii  i
(D) iii  ii  iv  i

33. We can show that the clique problem is NP-hard by proving that
(A) CLIQUE ≤  P 3-CNF_SAT
(B) CLIQUE ≤ P VERTEX_COVER
(C) CLIQUE ≤ P SUBSET_SUM
(D) None of the above

34. Dijkstra algorithm, which solves the single-source shortest--paths problem, is a _________, and the Floyd-Warshall algorithm, which finds shortest paths between all pairs of vertices, is a _________
(A) Greedy algorithm, Divide-conquer algorithm
(B) Divide-conquer algorithm, Greedy algorithm
(C) Greedy algorithm, Dynamic programming algorithm
(D) Dynamic programming algorithm, Greedy algorithm

35. Consider the problem of a chain <A1, A2, A3> of three matrices. Suppose that the dimensions of the matrices are 10 × 100, 100 × 5 and 5 × 50 respectively. There are two different ways of parenthesization : (i) ((A1 A2)A3) and (ii) (A1(A2 A3)). Computing the product according to the first parenthesization is ________ times faster in comparison to the second parenthesization.
(A) 5          (B) 10
(C) 20        (D) 100

36. Suppose that we have numbers between 1 and 1000 in a binary search tree and we want to search for the number 365. Which of the following sequences could not be the sequence of nodes examined ?
(A) 4, 254, 403, 400, 332, 346, 399, 365
(B) 926, 222, 913, 246, 900, 260, 364, 365
(C) 927, 204,913, 242, 914, 247, 365
(D) 4, 401, 389, 221, 268, 384, 383, 280, 365

37. Which methods are utilized to control the access to an object in multi-threaded programming ?
(A) Asynchronized methods        (B) Synchronized methods
(C) Serialized methods                (D) None of the above

38. How to express that some person keeps animals as pets ?

ANSWER: (A)

39. Converting a primitive type data into its corresponding wrapper class object instance is called
(A) Boxing             (B) Wrapping
(C) Instantiation     (D) Autoboxing

40. The behaviour of the document elements in XML can be defined by
(A) Using document object
(B) Registering appropriate event handlers
(C) Using element object
(D) All of the above

41. What is true about UML stereotypes ?
(A) Stereotype is used for extending the UML language.
(B) Stereotyped class must be abstract
(C) The stereotype indicates that the UML element cannot be changed
(D) UML profiles can be stereotyped for backward compatibility

42. Which method is called first by an applet program ?
(A) start( )        (B) run( )
(C) init( )          (D) begin( )

43. Which one of the following is not a source code metric ?
(A) Halstead metric (B) Function point metric
(C) Complexity metric (D) Length metric

44. To compute function points (FP), the following relationship is used FP = Count – total × (0.65 + 0.01 × Σ(Fi)) where Fi (i = 1 to n) are value adjustment factors (VAF) based on n questions. The value of n is
(A) 12    (B) 14
(C) 16    (D) 18

45. Assume that the software team defines a project risk with 80% probability of occurrence of risk in the following manner : Only 70 percent of the software components scheduled for reuse will be integrated into the application and the remaining functionality will have to be custom developed. If 60 reusable components were planned with average component size as 100 LOC and software engineering cost for each LOC as $ 14, then the risk exposure would be
(A) $ 25,200       (B) $ 20,160
(C) $ 17,640       (D) $ 15,120

46. Maximum possible value of reliability is
(A) 100          (B) 10
(C) 1              (D) 0

47. ‘FAN IN’ of a component A is defined as
(A) Count of the number of components that can call, or pass control, to a component A
(B) Number of components related to component A
(C) Number of components dependent on component A
(D) None of the above

48. Temporal cohesion means
(A) Coincidental cohesion
(B) Cohesion between temporary variables
(C) Cohesion between local variables
(D) Cohesion with respect to time

49. Various storage devices used by an operating system can be arranged as follows in increasing order of accessing speed :
(A) Magnetic tapes → magnetic disks → optical disks → electronic disks → main memory → cache → registers
(B) Magnetic tapes → magnetic disks → electronic disks → optical disks → main memory → cache → registers
(C) Magnetic tapes → electronic disks → magnetic disks → optical disks → main memory → cache → registers
(D) Magnetic tapes → optical disks → magnetic disks → electronic disks → main memory → cache → registers

50. How many disk blocks are required to keep list of free disk blocks in a 16 GB hard disk with 1 kB block size using linked list of free disk blocks ? Assume that the disk block number is stored in 32 bits.
(A) 1024 blocks           (B) 16794 blocks
(C) 20000 blocks         (D) 1048576 blocks

51. Consider an imaginary disk with 40 cylinders. A request come to read a block on cylinder 11. While the seek to cylinder 11 is in progress, new requests come in for cylinders 1, 36, 16, 34, 9 and 12 in that order. The number of arm motions using shortest seek first algorithm is
(A) 111     (B) 112
(C) 60      (D) 61

52. An operating system has 13 tape drives. There are three processes P1, P2 & P3. Maximum requirement of P1 is 11 tape drives, P2 is 5 tape drives and P3 is 8 tape drives. Currently, P1 is allocated 6 tape drives, P2 is allocated 3 tape drives and P3 is allocated 2 tape drives. Which of the following sequences represent a safe state ?
(A) P2 P1 P3         (B) P2 P3 P1
(C) P1 P2 P3         (D) P1 P3 P2

53. Monitor is an Interprocess Communication (IPC) technique which can be described as
(A) It is higher level synchronization primitive and is a collection of procedures, variables, and data structures grouped together in a special package.
(B) It is a non-negative integer which apart from initialization can be acted upon by wait and signal operations.
(C) It uses two primitives, send and receive which are system calls rather than language constructs.
(D) It consists of the IPC primitives implemented as system calls to block the process when they are not allowed to enter critical region to save CPU time.

54. In a distributed computing environment, distributed shared memory is used which is
(A) Logical combination of virtual memories on the nodes.
(B) Logical combination of physical memories on the nodes.
(C) Logical combination of the secondary memories on all the nodes.
(D) All of the above

55. Equivalent logical expression for the Well Formed Formula (WFF),
~(∀x) F[x] is

(A) ∀x(~F[x])            (B) ~(∃x) F[x]
(C) ∃x(~F[x])             (D) ∀ F[x]

56. An A* algorithm is a heuristic search technique which
(A) is like a depth-first search where most promising child is selected for expansion
(B) generates all successor nodes and computes an estimate of distance (cost) from start node to a goal node through each of the successors. It then chooses the successor with shortest cost.
(C) saves all path lengths (costs) from start node to all generated nodes and chooses shortest path for further expansion.
(D) none of the above

57. The resolvent of the set of clauses  (A ∨ B, ~A ∨ D, C ∨ ~B)  is
(A) A ∨ B            (B) C ∨ D
(C) A ∨ C            (D) A ∨ D

58. Match the following :
a. Script                                    i. Directed graph with labelled nodes for graphical representation of

                                                    knowledge
b. Conceptual Dependencies     ii. Knowledge about objects and events is stored in record-like structures 

                                                    consisting of slots and slot values.
c. Frames                                 iii. Primitive concepts and rules to represent natural language statements
d. Associative Network            iv. Frame like structures used to represent stereotypical patterns for

                                                    commonly occurring events in terms of actors, roles, props and scenes
Codes :
      a b   c  d
(A) iv  ii  i   iii
(B) iv  iii  ii   i
(C) ii  iii  iv   i
(D) i  iii  iv   ii

59. Match the following components of an expert system :
a. I/O interface              i. Accepts user’s queries and responds to question through I/O interface
b. Explanation module   ii. Contains facts and rules about the domain
c. Inference engine       iii. Gives the user, the ability to follow inferencing steps at any time during consultation
d. Knowledge base      iv. Permits the user to communicate with the system in a natural way
Codes :
      a  b  c   d
(A) i  iii   iv  ii
(B) iv  iii  i   ii
(C) i   iii  ii   iv
(D) iv  i   iii  ii

60. A computer based information system is needed :
I. as it is difficult for administrative staff to process data.
II. due to rapid growth of information and communication technology.
III. due to growing size of organizations which need to process large volume of data.
IV. as timely and accurate decisions are to be taken.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true ?
(A) I and II
(B) III and IV
(C) II and III
(D) II and IV

61. Given the recursively enumerable language (LRE), the context sensitive language (LCS), the recursive language (LREC), the context free language (LCF) and deterministic context free language (LDCF). The relationship between these families is given by
(A) LCF ⊆ LDCF ⊆ LCS ⊆ LRE ⊆ LREC
(B) LCF ⊆ LDCF ⊆ LCS ⊆ LREC ⊆ LRE
(C) LDCF ⊆ LCF ⊆ LCS ⊆ LRE ⊆ LREC
(D) LDCF ⊆ LCF ⊆ LCS ⊆ LREC ⊆ LRE

62. Match the following :
              List – I                            List – II
a. Context free grammar          i. Linear bounded automaton
b. Regular grammar                 ii. Pushdown automaton
c. Context sensitive grammar   iii. Turing machine
d. Unrestricted grammar          iv. Deterministic finite automaton
Codes :
       a  b  c  d
(A) ii  iv  iii   i
(B) ii  iv   i   iii
(C) iv  i   ii   iii
(D) i   iv  iii   ii

63. According to pumping lemma for context free languages :
Let L be an infinite context free language, then there exists some positive integer m such that any w ∈| L with | w | ≥ m can be decomposed as w = u v x y z
(A) with | vxy | ≤ m such that uv ⁱ xy ⁱ z ∈ L for all i = 0, 1, 2
(B) with | vxy | ≤ m, and | vy | ≥ 1, such that uv ⁱ xy ⁱ z ∈ L for all i = 0, 1, 2, …….
(C) with | vxy | ≥ m, and | vy | ≤ 1, such that uv ⁱ xy ⁱ z ∈ L for all i = 0, 1, 2, …….
(D) with | vxy | ≥ m, and | vy | ≥ 1, such that uv ⁱ xy ⁱ z ∈ L for all i = 0, 1, 2, …….

64. Given two spatial masks

The Laplacian of an image at all points (x, y) can be implemented by convolving the image with spatial mask. Which of the following can be used as the spatial mask ?
(A) only S1                    (B) only S2
(C) Both S1 and S2       (D) None of these

65. Given a simple image of size 10 × 10 whose histogram models the symbol probabilities
and is given by
           p1    p2    p3    p4
            a      b      c      d
The first order estimate of image entropy is maximum when
(A) a = 0, b = 0, c = 0, d = 1         (B) a =1/2, b =1/2 , c = 0, d = 0
(C) a =1/3, b =1/3, c =1/3, d = 0   (D) a =1/4, b =1/4, c =1/4, d =1/4

66. A Butterworth lowpass filter of order n, with a cutoff frequency at distance D0 from the origin, has the transfer function H(u, v) given by

ANSWER: (A)

67. If an artificial variable is present in the ‘basic variable’ column of optimal simplex table, then the solution is
(A) Optimum           (B) Infeasible
(C) Unbounded       (D) Degenerate

68. The occurrence of degeneracy while solving a transportation problem means that
(A) total supply equals total demand
(B) total supply does not equal total demand
(C) the solution so obtained is not feasible
(D) none of these

69. Five men are available to do five different jobs. From past records, the time (in hours) that
each man takes to do each job is known and is given in the following table :

Find out the minimum time required to complete all the jobs.
(A) 5        (B) 11
(C) 13      (D) 15

70. Consider the following statements about a perception :
I. Feature detector can be any function of the input parameters.
II. Learning procedure only adjusts the connection weights to the output layer.
Identify the correct statement out of the following :
(A) I is false and II is false.        (B) I is true and II is false.
(C) I is false and II is true.         (D) I is true and II is true.

71. A _________ point of a fuzzy set A is a point x ∈ X at which μA(x) = 0.5
(A) core               (B) support
(C) crossover       (D) α-cut

72. Match the following learning modes w.r.t. characteristics of available information for learning :
a. Supervised            i.  Instructive information on desired responses, explicitly specified by a teacher.
b. Recording             ii. A priori design information for memory storing
c. Reinforcement      iii. Partial information about desired responses, or only “right” or “wrong” evaluative 

                                    information
d. Unsupervised        iv. No information about desired responses
Codes :
     a  b  c  d
(A) i  ii  iii  iv
(B) i  iii  ii  iv
(C) ii  iv  iii  i
(D) ii  iii  iv  i

73. Which of the following versions of Windows O.S. contain built-in partition manager which allows us to shrink and expand pre-defined drives ?
(A) Windows Vista               (B) Windows 2000
(C) Windows NT                 (D) Windows 98

74. A Trojan horse is
(A) A program that performs a legitimate function that is known to an operating system or its user and also has a hidden component that can be used for nefarious purposes like attacks on message security or impersonation.
(B) A piece of code that can attach itself to other programs in the system and spread to other systems when programs are copied or transferred.
(C) A program that spreads to other computer systems by exploiting security holes like weaknesses in facilities for creation of remote processes
(D) All of the above

75. Which of the following computing models is not an example of distributed computing environment ?
(A) Cloud computing           (B) Parallel computing
(C) Cluster computing         (D) Peer-to-peer computing