Ela Who Knows: 2010

Monday, December 27, 2010

UGC NET Solved Paper I Dec2010

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. Which of the following variables cannot be expressed in quantitative terms ?
(A) Socio-economic Status (B) Marital Status (C) Numerical Aptitude (D) Professional Attitude

2. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His research would be
     classified as
   (A) Descriptive Survey (B)Experimental Research (C) Case Study (D) Ethnography

3. The term ‘phenomenology’ is associated with the process of
    (A) Qualitative Research (B) Analysis of Variance (C) Correlational Study (D) Probability Sampling

4. The ‘Sociogram’ technique is used to study
    (A) Vocational Interest (B) Professional Competence (C) Human Relations (D) Achievement Motivation

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :

It should be remembered that the nationalist movement in India, like all nationalist movements, was essentially a bourgeois movement. It represented the natural historical stage of development, and to consider it or to criticise it as a working-class movement is wrong. Gandhi represented that movement and the Indian masses in relation to that movement to a supreme degree, and he became the voice of Indian people to that extent. The main contribution of Gandhi to India and the Indian masses has been through the powerful movements which he launched through the National Congress. Through nation-wide action he sought to mould the millions, and largely succeeded in doing so, and changing them from a demoralised, timid and hopeless mass, bullied and crushed by every dominant interest, and incapable of resistance, into a people with self-respect and self-reliance, resisting tyranny, and capable of united action and sacrifice for a larger cause.

Gandhi made people think of political and economic issues and every village and every bazaar hummed with argument and debate on the new ideas and hopes that filled the people. That was an amazing psychological change. The time was ripe for it, of course, and circumstances and world conditions worked for this change. But a great leader is necessary to take advantage of circumstances and conditions. Gandhi was that leader, and he released many of the bonds that imprisoned and disabled our minds, and none of us who experienced it can ever forget that great feeling of release and exhilaration that came over the Indian people.

Gandhi has played a revolutionary role in India of the greatest importance because he knew how to make the most of the objective conditions and could reach the heart of the masses, while groups with a more advanced ideology functioned largely in the air because they did not fit in with those conditions and could therefore not evoke any substantial response from the masses.

It is perfectly true that Gandhi, functioning in the nationalist plane, does not think in terms of the conflict of classes, and tries to compose their differences. But the action he has indulged and taught the people has inevitably raised mass consciousness tremendously and made social issues vital. Gandhi and the Congress must be judged by the policies they pursue and the action they indulge in. But behind this, personality counts and colours those policies and activities. In the case of very exceptional person like Gandhi the question of personality becomes especially important in order to understand and appraise him. To us he has represented the spirit and honour of India, the yearning of her sorrowing millions to be rid of their innumerable burdens, and an insult to him by the British Government or others has been an insult to India and her people.

5. Which one of the following is true of the given passage ?
(A) The passage is a critique of Gandhi’s role in Indian movement for independence.

(B) The passage hails the role of Gandhi in India’s freedom movement.

(C) The author is neutral on Gandhi’s role in India’s freedom movement.
(D) It is an account of Indian National Congress’s support to the working-class movement.

6. The change that the Gandhian movement brought among the Indian masses was
(A) Physical (B) Cultural (C) Technological (D) Psychological

7. To consider the nationalist movement or to criticise it as a working-class movement was wrong because it was a
(A) historical movement
(B) voice of the Indian people

(D) movement represented by Gandhi

8. Gandhi played a revolutionary role in India because he could
(A) preach morality

(B) reach the heart of Indians

(C) see the conflict of classes
(D) lead the Indian National Congress

9. Groups with advanced ideology functioned in the air as they did not fit in with

(A) objective conditions of masses

(B) the Gandhian ideology

(C) the class consciousness of the people
(D) the differences among masses

10. The author concludes the passage by
(A) criticising the Indian masses
(B) the Gandhian movement

(D) identifying the sorrows of millions of Indians

11. Media that exist in an interconnected series of communication – points are referred to as
      (A) Networked media (B) Connective media (C) Nodal media (D) Multimedia

12. The information function of mass communication is described as
      (A) diffusion (B) publicity (C) surveillance (D) diversion

13. An example of asynchronous medium is
      (A) Radio (B) Television (C) Film (D) Newspaper

14. In communication, connotative words are
      (A) explicit (B) abstract (C) simple (D) cultural

15. A message beneath a message is labelled as
      (A) embedded text (B) internal text (C) inter-text (D) sub-text

16. In analog mass communication, stories are
      (A) static (B) dynamic (C) interactive (D) exploratory

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words ALWAYS :NEVER and then select from the
      following pair of words which have a similar relationship :
     (A) often : rarely (B) frequently : occasionally (C) constantly : frequently (D) intermittently : casually

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence : 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
      (A) 27 (B) 34 (C) 43 (D) 48

19. In a certain code, PAN is written as 31 and PAR as 35, then PAT is written in the same code as
      (A) 30 (B) 37 (C) 39 (D) 41

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right
      choice for the second set : AF : IK : : LQ : ?
      (A) MO (B) NP (C) OR (D) TV

21. If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6, 7584 = 6, what is 9236 ?
      (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

22. In an examination, 35% of the total students failed in Hindi, 45% failed in English and 20% in both. The
      percentage of those who passed in both subjects is
      (A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40

23. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a) and (b).
      Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow ?
      Statements :
         I. Some flowers are red.
          II. Some flowers are blue.
      Conclusions :
         (a) Some flowers are neither red nor blue.
         (b) Some flowers are both red and blue.

      (A) Only (a) follows.
      (B) Only (b) follows.
      (C) Both (a) and (b) follow.
      (D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

24. If the statement ‘all students are intelligent’ is true, which of the following statements are false ?
      (i) No students are intelligent.
     (ii) Some students are intelligent.
     (iii) Some students are not intelligent.
     (A) (i) and (ii)
     (B) (i) and (iii)
     (C) (ii) and (iii)
     (D) (i) only

25. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement
       is called
      (A) Deductive Reasoning
      (B) Inductive Reasoning
      (C) Abnormal Reasoning
      (D) Transcendental Reasoning

26. What is the smallest number of ducks that could swim in this formation – two ducks in front of a
      duck, two ducks behind a duck and a duck between two ducks ?
      (A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 3

27. Mr. A, Miss B, Mr. C and Miss D are sitting around a table and discussing their trades.
      (i) Mr. A sits opposite to the cook.
      (ii) Miss B sits right to the barber
     (iii) The washerman sits right to the barber
     (iv) Miss D sits opposite to Mr. C
      What are the trades of A and B ?
     (A) Tailor and barber (B) Barber and cook (C) Tailor and cook (D) Tailor and washerman

28. Which one of the following methods serve to measure correlation between two variables ?
      (A) Scatter Diagram (B) Frequency Distribution (C) Two-way table (D) Coefficient of Rank Correlation

29. Which one of the following is not an Internet Service Provider (ISP) ?
      (A) MTNL (B) BSNL (C) ERNET India (D) Infotech India Ltd.

30. The hexadecimal number system consists of the symbols
       (A) 0 – 7 (B) 0 – 9 , A – F (C) 0 – 7, A – F (D) None of these

31. The binary equivalent of (–15)10 is (2’s complement system is used)
      (A) 11110001 (B) 11110000 (C) 10001111 (D) None of these

32. 1 GB is equal to
      (A) 2^30 bits (B) 2^30 bytes (C) 2^20 bits (D) 2^20 bytes
   Note: In the question paper the symbol ^ is omitted by mistake

33. The set of computer programs that manage the hardware/software of a computer is called
      (A) Compiler system (B) Operation system (C) Operating system (D) None of these

34. S/MIME in Internet technology stands for
      (A) Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
      (B) Secure Multimedia Internet Mail Extension
      (C) Simple Multipurpose Internet Mail Extension
      (D) Simple Multimedia Internet Mail Extension

35. Which of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of
      Government of India ?
      (A) Solar power (B) Waste to energy conversion (C) Afforestation (D) Nuclear energy

36. The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed
      (A) 500 mg/L (B) 400 mg/L (C) 300 mg/L (D) 200 mg/L

37. ‘Chipko’ movement was first started by
       (A) Arundhati Roy (B) Medha Patkar (C) Ila Bhatt (D) Sunderlal Bahuguna

38. The constituents of photochemical smog responsible for eye irritation are
      (A) SO2 and O3 (B) SO2 and NO2 (C) HCHO and PAN (D) SO2 and SPM

39. Assertion (A) : Some carbonaceous aerosols may be carcinogenic.
      Reason (R)    : They may contain polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs).
     (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
     (B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
     (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
     (D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

40. Volcanic eruptions affect
     (A) atmosphere and hydrosphere
     (B) hydrosphere and biosphere
     (C) lithosphere, biosphere and atmosphere
     (D) lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere

41. India’s first Defence University is in the State of
     (A) Haryana (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab

42. Most of the Universities in India
      (A) conduct teaching and research only
      (B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations
     (C) conduct teaching/research and examinations
     (D) promote research only

43. Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body ?
       (A) Election Commission
       (B) Finance Commission
       (C) Union Public Service Commission
       (D) Planning Commission

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
     (A) Indian Parliament is supreme.
     (B) The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
     (C) There is a division of powers between the Centre and the States.
     (D) There is a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.

45. Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy ?
     (A) Written Constitution
     (B) No State religion
     (C) Devolution of power to local Government institutions
     (D) Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament

46. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the President of India ?
     (A) Chief Minister of a State
     (B) A member of the State Public Service Commission
     (C) Advocate-General
     (D) Vice-Chancellor of a State University

47. If two small circles represent the class of the ‘men’ and the class of the ‘plants’ and the big circle
represents ‘mortality’, which one of the following figures represent the proposition ‘All men are mortal.’ ?

ANS (C)

The following table presents the production of electronic items (TVs and LCDs) in a factory during the period from 2006 to 2010. Study the table carefully and answer the questions from 48 to 52 :

48. In which year, the total production of electronic items is maximum ?
(A) 2006 (B) 2007 (C) 2008 (D) 2010

49. What is the difference between averages of production of LCDs and TVs from 2006 to 2008 ?
(A) 3000 (B) 2867 (C) 3015 (D) 2400
   Note: None of the answer is correct

50. What is the year in which production of TVs is half the production of LCDs in the year 2010 ?
(A) 2007 (B) 2006 (C) 2009 (D) 2008

51. What is the ratio of production of LCDs in the years 2008 and 2010 ?
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 2 : 3

52. What is the ratio of production of TVs in the years 2006 and 2007 ?
(A) 6 : 7 (B) 7 : 6 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2

53. Some students in a class exhibit great curiosity for learning. It may be because such children
      (A) Are gifted
      (B) Come from rich families
      (C) Show artificial behavior
      (D) Create indiscipline in the class

54. The most important quality of a good teacher is
      (A) Sound knowledge of subject matter

(B) Good communication skills

    (C) Concern for students’ welfare
      (D) Effective leadership qualities

55. Which one of the following is appropriate in respect of teacher student relationship ?
      (A) Very informal and intimate
      (B) Limited to classroom only

      (D) Indifferent

56. The academic performance of students can be improved if parents are encouraged to
      (A) supervise the work of their wards
      (B) arrange for extra tuition
      (C) remain unconcerned about it
      (D) interact with teachers frequently

57. In a lively classroom situation, there is likely to be
      (A) occasional roars of laughter
      (B) complete silence
      (C) frequent teacher-student dialogue
      (D) loud discussion among students

58. If a parent approaches the teacher to do some favour to his/her ward in the examination,
      the teacher should
     (A) try to help him
     (B) ask him not to talk in those terms
     (C) refuse politely and firmly
     (D) ask him rudely to go away

59. Which of the following phrases is not relevant to describe the meaning of research as a process ?
      (A) Systematic Activity
      (B) Objective Observation
      (C) Trial and Error
      (D) Problem Solving

60. Which of the following is not an example of a continuous variable ?
      (A) Family size (B) Intelligence (C) Height (D) Attitude

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II Dec2010...

1. The number of integers between 1 and 250 that are divisible by 2, 5 and 7 is

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 8

2. An undirected graph possesses an eulerian circuit if and only if it is connected and its vertices are

(A) all of even degree

(B) all of odd degree

(D) even in number

3. A partially ordered set is said to be a lattice if every two elements in the set have

(A) a unique least upper bound

(B) a unique greatest lower bound

(D) none of the above

4. The minimum number of edges in a connected graph with ‘n’ vertices is equal to

(A) n (n – 1)

(B) n (n – 1)/2

(D) n – 1

5. Consider the problem of connecting 19 lamps to a single electric outlet by using extension cords each of

which has four outlets. The number of extension cords required is

(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7

6. The decimal number equivalent of (4057.06)8 is

(A) 2095.75

(B) 2095.075

(D) 2095.0937

7. AB +(A+ B) is equivalent to
(A) AÅ B

(B) A☉B
(C) (AÅB)☉A
(D) (A☉B)ÅA

Explanation:
Hint: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logic_gate#Symbols

8. An astable multivibrator has

(A) one stable state
(B) two stable states

(D) none of these

9. 12-bit 2’s complement of –73.75 is

(A) 01001001.1100

(B) 11001001.1100

(D) 10110110.1100

10. Encoding of data bits 0011 into 7-bit even Parity Hamming Code is

(A) 0011110

(B) 0101110

(D) 0011100

11. How many of the following declarations are correct ?

int z = 7.0;

double void = 0.000;

short array [2] = {0, 1, 2};

char c = “\n”;

(A) None

(B) One is correct

(D) All four are correct
Hint: Void is keyword, array[2] cannot hold 3 values, "" cannot be used in char

12. The value of the following expression (13 / 4 * 3) % 5 + 1 is

(A) 5.75

(B) 2.95

(D) 5

13. Which one of the following will set the value of y to 5 if x has the value 3, but not otherwise ?

(A) if (x = 3) y = 5

(B) if x = = 3 (y = 5)

(D) if (x = = 3) y = 5

14. Which one of the following sentences is true ?

(A) The body of a while loop is executed at least once.

(B) The body of a do … while loop is executed at least once.

(D) A for loop can never be used in place of a while loop.

15. “Black” refers in the “Black-box” testing means

(A) Characters of the movie “Black”

(B) I – O is hidden

(D) Users are hidden

16. In generalisation, the differences between members of an entity is

(A) maximized

(B) minimized

(D) None of these

17. The dependency preservation decomposition is a property to decompose database schema D, in

which each functional dependency X ® Y specified in F,

(A) appeared directly in one of the relation schemas Ri in the decomposed D.

(B) could be inferred from dependencies that appear in some Ri.

(D) None of these

18. Which of the following is an optimistic concurrency control method ?

(A) Validation based

(B) Time stamp ordering

(D) None of these

19. Optical storage is a

(A) high-speed direct access storage device.

(B) low-speed direct access storage device.

(D) high-speed sequential access storage device.

20. Which of the following is the process by which a user’s access to physical data in the application is

limited, based on his privileges ?

(A) Authorization

(B) Authentication

(D) All of these

21. What is the maximum number of nodes in a B-tree of order 10 of depth 3 (root at depth 0) ?

(A) 111

(B) 999

(D) None of the above
Hint: ((m^h) -1 /m-1) where m=order and h=depth : to find the maximum number of nodes

22. A binary tree with 27 nodes has _______ null branches.

(A) 54

(B) 27

(D) None of the above

Hint: null branches = n+1 nodes

23. The time complexity to build a heap of n elements is

(A) 0(1)

(B) 0(lgn)

(D) 0(nlgn)

24. Linear probing suffers from a problem known as

(A) Secondary clustering

(B) Primary clustering

(D) None of these

25. Which of the following can be the sequence of nodes examined in binary search tree while searching

for key 88 ?

(A) 90, 40, 65, 50, 88

(B) 90, 110, 80, 85, 88

(D) 65, 140, 80, 70, 88

26. Frequency shift keying is used mostly in

(A) Radio transmission

(B) Telegraphy

(D) None of the above

27. The baud rate is

(A) always equal to the bit transfer rate

(B) equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel

(D) equal to half of the bandwidth of an ideal channel

28. How much bandwidth is there in 1 micron of spectrum at a wavelength of 1 micron ?

(A) 300 MHz

(B) 3 GHz

(D) 30 KHz

29. Which of the following file transfer protocols use TCP and establishes two virtual circuits between the local and remote server ?

(A) FTP

(B) TFTP

(D) NFS

30. The threshold effect in demodulator is

(A) exhibited by all demodulator, when the input signal to noise ratio is low.

(B) the rapid fall on output signal to noise ratio when the input signal to noise ratio fall below a particular value.

(D) the property exhibited by correlation receiver.

31. Object code is the output of ______.

(A) Operating System

(B) Compiler or Assembler

(D) only Compiler

32. ‘Macro’ in an assembly level program is _______.

(A) sub program

(B) a complete program

(D) relative coding

33. Grammar of the programming is checked at ________ phase of compiler.

(A) semantic analysis

(B) code generation

(D) code optimization

34. The register or main memory location which contains the effective address of the operand is known as

(A) pointer

(B) special location

(D) None of the above

35. Macro-processors are ______.

(A) Hardware

(B) Compiler

(D) None of the above

36. The dynamic allocation of storage areas with VSAM files is accomplished by

(A) Hashing

(B) Control splits

(D) Relative recoding

37. Which of the following command the file names in multiple columns ?

(A) IS – X

(B) IS

(D) IS – f – X

38. WINDOWS is a _________ operating.

(A) Real time

(B) Multi-user

(D) Non-preemptive

39. Page making process from main memory to disk is called

(A) Interruption

(B) Termination

(D) None of the above

40. A Dead-lock in an Operating System is

(A) Desirable process

(B) Undesirable process

(D) All of the above
Note: Deadlock is an undesirable condition but is a definite waiting process

41. Prototyping is used to

(A) test the software as an end product

(B) expand design details

(D) None of the above

42. Which one of these are not software maintenance activity ?

(A) Error correction

(B) Adaptation

(D) Establishing scope

43. The system specification is the first deliverable in the computer system engineering process which does not include

(A) Functional Description

(B) Cost

(D) Technical Analysis

44. The COCOMO model was introduced in the book title “Software Engineering Economics” authored by

(A) Abraham Silberschatz

(B) Barry Boehm

(D) D.E. Knuth

45. The Warnier diagram enables analyst

(A) to represent information hierarchy in a compact manner

(B) to further identify requirement

(D) None of the above

46. A data mart may contain

(A) summarised data

(B) de-normalized data

(D) All of the above

47. Data mining is

(A) the process of extracting valid, previously unknown, comprehensible and actionable information from large databases and using it to make crucial business decisions.

(B) a tool that allows end users direct access and manipulation of data from within datawarehousing environment without the intervention of customised programming activity.

(D) All of the above

48. E-Choupal refers to

(A) calling meeting of Surpanches electronically.

(B) conducting Panchayat meeting using latest electronic gadgets.

(D) None of the above

49. The basic concepts of ethics in information society is/are

(A) Responsibility

(B) Accountability

(D) All of the above

50. One of the distinguished features of super-computer over other category of computer is

(A) parallel processing

(B) highest accuracy level

(D) more capacity

Monday, June 28, 2010

UGC NET Solved Paper I June2010

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. Which one of the following is the most important quality of a good teacher ?

(A) Punctuality and sincerity

(B) Content mastery

(D) Content mastery and sociable

2. The primary responsibility for the teacher’s adjustment lies with

(A) The children

(B) The principal

(D) The community

3. As per the NCTE norms, what should be the staff strength for a unit of 100 students at B.Ed. level ?

(A) 1 + 7 (B) 1 + 9 (C) 1 + 10 (D) 1 + 5

4. Research has shown that the most frequent symptom of nervous instability among teachers is

(A) Digestive upsets

(B) Explosive behaviour

(D) Worry

5. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(A) Syllabus is an annexure to the curriculum.

(B) Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions.

(D) Curriculum does not include methods of evaluation.

6. A successful teacher is one who is

(A) Compassionate and disciplinarian

(B) Quite and reactive

(D) Passive and active

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 7 to 12.

The phrase “What is it like ?” stands for a fundamental thought process. How does one go about observing and reporting on things and events that occupy segments of earth space ? Of all the infinite variety of phenomena on the face of the earth, how does one decide what phenomena to observe ? There is no such thing as a complete description of the earth or any part of it, for every microscopic point on the earth’s surface differs from every other such point. Experience shows that the things observed are already familiar,

because they are like phenomena that occur at home or because they resemble the abstract images and models developed in the human mind. How are abstract images formed ? Humans alone among the animals possess language; their words symbolize not only specific things but also mental images of classes of things. People can remember what they have seen or experienced because they attach a word symbol to them.

During the long record of our efforts to gain more and more knowledge about the face of the earth as the human habitat, there has been a continuing interplay between things and events. The direct observation through the senses is described as a percept; the mental image is described as a concept. Percepts are what some people describe as reality, in contrast to mental images, which are theoretical, implying that they are not real. The relation of Percept to Concept is not as simple as the definition implies. It is now quite clear that people of different cultures or even individuals in the same culture develop different mental images of reality and what they perceive is a reflection of these preconceptions. The direct observation of things and events on the face of the earth is so clearly a function of the mental images of the mind of the observer that the whole idea of reality must be reconsidered. Concepts determine what the observer perceives, yet concepts are derived from the generalizations of previous percepts. What happens is that the educated observer is taught

to accept a set of concepts and then sharpens or changes these concepts during a professional career. In any one field of scholarship, professional opinion at one time determines what concepts and procedures are acceptable, and these form a kind of model of scholarly behaviour.

7. The problem raised in the passage reflects on

(A) thought process (B) human behaviour (C) cultural perceptions (D) professional opinion

8. According to the passage, human beings have mostly in mind

(A) Observation of things

(B) Preparation of mental images

(D) To gain knowledge

9. Concept means

(A) A mental image (B) A reality (C) An idea expressed in language form (D) All the above

10. The relation of Percepts to Concept is

(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Reflective (D) Absolute

11. In the passage, the earth is taken as

(A) The Globe (B) The Human Habitat (C) A Celestial Body (D) A Planet

12. Percept means

(A) Direct observation through the senses

(B) A conceived idea

(D) An abstract image

13. Action research means

(A) A longitudinal research

(B) An applied research

(D) A research with socioeconomic objective

14. Research is

(A) Searching again and again

(B) Finding solution to any problem

(D) None of the above

15. A common test in research demands much priority on

(A) Reliability

(B) Useability

(D) All of the above

16. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process ?

(A) Searching sources of information to locate problem.

(B) Survey of related literature

(D) Searching for solutions to the problem

17. If a researcher conducts a research on finding out which administrative style contributes more to

institutional effectiveness ? This will be an example of

(A) Basic Research

(B) Action Research

(D) None of the above

18. Normal Probability Curve should be

(A) Positively skewed

(B) Negatively skewed

(D) Zero skewed

19. In communication, a major barrier to reception of messages is

(A) audience attitude

(B) audience knowledge

(D) audience income

20. Post-modernism is associated with

(A) newspapers

(B) magazines

(D) television

21. Didactic communication is

(A) intra-personal

(B) inter-personal

(D) relational

22. In communication, the language is

(A) the non-verbal code

(B) the verbal code

(D) the iconic code

23. Identify the correct sequence of the following :

(A) Source, channel, message, receiver

(B) Source, receiver, channel, message

(D) Source, message, channel, receiver

24. Assertion (A) : Mass media promote a culture of violence in the society.

Reason (R) : Because violence sells in the market as people themselves are violent in character.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.

25. When an error of 1% is made in the length of a square, the percentage error in the area of a square will be

(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 1 (D) 2

26. On January 12, 1980, it was a Saturday. The day of the week on January 12, 1979 was

(A) Thursday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Sunday

27. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called earth, earth is called world, which of the following grows a fruit ?

(A) Water (B) Tree (C) World (D) Earth

28. E is the son of A, D is the son of B, E is married to C, C is the daughter of B. How is D related to E ?

(A) Brother (B) Uncle (C) Father-in-law (D) Brother-in-law

29. If INSURANCE is coded as ECNARUSNI, how HINDRANCE will be coded ?

(A) CADNIHWCE

(B) HANODEINR

(D) ECNARDNIH

30. Find the next number in the following series : 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, ?

(A) 63 (B) 65 (C) 67 (D) 69

31. Which of the following is an example of circular argument ?

(A) God created man in his image and man created God in his own image.

(B) God is the source of a scripture and the scripture is the source of our knowledge of God.

(D) Rama is great because he is Rama.

32. Lakshmana is a morally good person because

(A) he is religious

(B) he is educated

(D) he is rational

33. Two statements I and II given below are followed by two conclusions (a)and (b). Supposing the statements are true, which of the following conclusions can logically follow ?

I. Some religious people are morally good.

II. Some religious people are rational.

Conclusions :

(a) Rationally religious people are good morally.

(b) Non-rational religious persons are not morally good.

(A) Only (a) follows.

(B) Only (b) follows.

(D) Neither (a) nor (b) follows.

34. Certainty is

(A) an objective fact

(B) emotionally satisfying

(D) ontological

Questions from 35 to 36 are based on the following diagram in which there are three intersecting circles I,

S and P where circle I stands for Indians, circle S stands for scientists and circle P for politicians. Different

regions of the figure are lettered from a to g.

35. The region which represents non- Indian scientists who are politicians.

(A) f (B) d (C) a (D) c

36. The region which represents politicians who are Indians as well as scientists.

(A) b (B) c (C) a (D) d

37. The population of a city is plotted as a function of time (years) in graphic form below :

Which of the following inference can be drawn from above plot ?

(A) The population increases exponentially.

(B) The population increases in parabolic fashion.

(D) The population initially increases exponentially and then stabilizes.

In the following chart, the price of logs is shown in per cubic metre and that of Plywood and Saw Timber in

per tonnes. Study the chart and answer the following questions 38, 39 and 40.

38. Which product shows the maximum percentage increase in price over the period ?

(A) Saw timber (B) Plywood (C) Log (D) None of the above

39. What is the maximum percentage increase in price per cubic metre of log ?

(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 20

40. In which year the prices of two products increased and that of the third increased ?

41. Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India ?

(A) National Sample Surveys

(B) Agricultural Statistics

(D) Vital Statistics

42. In a large random data set following normal distribution, the ratio (%) of number of data points which are in the range of (mean ± standard deviation) to the total number of data points, is

(A) ~ 50% (B) ~ 67% (C) ~ 97% (D) ~ 47%

43. Which number system is usually followed in a typical 32-bit computer ?

(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 16

44. Which one of the following is an example of Operating System ?

(A) Microsoft Word

(B) Microsoft Excel

(D) Microsoft Windows

45. Which one of the following represent the binary equivalent of the decimal number 23 ?

(A) 01011

(B) 10111

(D) None of the above

46. Which one of the following is different from other members ?

(A) Google

(B) Windows

(D) Mac

47. Where does a computer add and compare its data ?

(A) CPU

(B) Memory

(D) Floppy disk

48. Computers on an internet are identified by

(A) e-mail address

(B) street address

(D) None of the above

49. The Right to Information Act, 2005 makes the provision of

(A) Dissemination of all types of information by all Public authorities to any person.

(B) Establishment of Central, State and District Level Information Commissions as an appellate body.

(D) All of the above

50. Which type of natural hazards cause maximum damage to property and lives ?

(A) Hydrological

(B) Hydro-meteorological

(D) Geo-chemical

51. Dioxins are produced from

(A) Wastelands

(B) Power plants

(D) Combustion of plastics

52. The slogan “A tree for each child” was coined for

(A) Social forestry programme

(B) Clean Air programme

(D) Environmental protection programme

53. The main constituents of biogas are

(A) Methane and Carbon di-oxide

(B) Methane and Nitric oxide

(D) Methane and Sulphur di-oxide

54. Assertion (A) : In the world as a whole, the environment has degraded during past several decades.

Reason (R) : The population of the world has been growing significantly.

(A) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) (A) is correct, (R) is correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.

55. Climate change has implications for

1. soil moisture 2. forest fires 3. biodiversity 4. ground water

Identify the correct combination according to the code :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

56. The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of

(A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts.

(B) One has institutional grading approach and the other has programme grading approach.

(C) Once get accredited by NBA or NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision.

(D) This accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution concerned.

57. Which option is not correct ?

(A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall under 64th entry of Union list.

(B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.

(D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in 2002 through 86th

Constitutional Amendment

58. Which statement is not correct about the “National Education Day” of India ?

(A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year.

(B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year.

(D) It is being celebrated since 2008

59. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :

List – I List – II

(Articles of the Constitution) (Institutions)

(a) Article 280 (i) Administrative Tribunals

(b) Article 324 (ii) Election Commission of India

(d) Article 315 (iv) Union Public Service Commission

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

60. Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to

(A) offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees.

(B) give affiliation to any institute of higher education.

the permission of the UGC.

(D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the Distance Education Council.

Ela Who Knows

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