UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II Dec 2014

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. Consider a set A = {1, 2, 3, …….., 1000}. How many members of A shall be divisible by  3 or by 5 or by both 3 and 5 ?
(A) 533    (B) 599
(C) 467    (D) 66

2. A certain tree has two vertices of degree 4, one vertex of degree 3 and one vertex of degree 2. If the other vertices have degree 1, how many vertices are there in the graph ?
(A) 5             (B) n – 3
(C) 20          (D) 11

3. Consider the Graph shown below :

 This graph is a __________.
(A) Complete Graph          (B) Bipartite Graph
(C) Hamiltonian Graph       (D) All of the above

4. A computer program selects an integer in the set {k : 1 ≤ k ≤ 10,00,000} at random and prints out the result. This process is repeated 1 million times. What is the probability that the value k = 1 appears in the printout atleast once ?
(A) 0.5               (B) 0.704
(C) 0.632121    (D) 0.68

5. If we define the functions f, g and h that map R into R by :
 f(x) =x ⁴ , g(x) =√ x ² + 1 ,  h(x) =x ² + 72, then the value of the composite functions ho(gof) and (hog)of are given as
(A) x ⁸ – 71 and x ⁸ – 71            (B) x ⁸ – 73 and x ⁸ – 73
(C) x ⁸ + 71 and x ⁸ + 71           (D) x ⁸ + 73 and x ⁸+ 73

6. The BCD adder to add two decimal digits needs minimum of
(A) 6 full adders and 2 half adders
(B) 5 full adders and 3 half adders
(C) 4 full adders and 3 half adders
(D) 5 full adders and 2 half adders

7. The Excess-3 decimal code is a self-complementing code because
(A) The binary sum of a code and its 9’s complement is equal to 9.
(B) It is a weighted code.
(C) Complement can be generated by inverting each bit pattern.
(D) The binary sum of a code and its 10’s complement is equal to 9.

8. How many PUSH and POP operations will be needed to evaluate the following expression by reverse polish notation in a stack machine (A * B) + (C * D/E) ?
(A) 4 PUSH and 3 POP instructions           (B) 5 PUSH and 4 POP instructions
(C) 6 PUSH and 2 POP instructions           (D) 5 PUSH and 3 POP instructions

9. The range of representable normalized numbers in the floating point binary fractional representation in a 32-bit word with 1-bit sign, 8-bit excess 128 biased exponent and 23-bit mantissa is
(A) 2 ^-128 to (1 – 2 ^-23) × 2 ¹²⁷             (B) (1 – 2 ^-23) × 2 ¹²⁷ to 2 ¹²⁸
(C) (1 – 2 ^-23) × 2 ^-127 to 2 ²³               (D) 2 ^-129 to (1 – 2 ^-23) × 2 ¹²⁷

10. The size of the ROM required to build an 8-bit adder/ subtractor with mode control, carry input, carry output and two’s complement overflow output is given as

(A) 2¹⁶ × 8            (B) 2¹⁸ × 10
(C) 2¹⁶ × 10          (D) 2¹⁸ × 8

11. What will be the output of the following ‘C’ code ?
main ( )
{ int x = 128;
printf (“\n%d”, 1 + x ++);
}
(A) 128         (B) 129
(C) 130         (D) 131

12. What does the following expression means ?
char *(*(* a[N]) ( )) ( );
(A) a pointer to a function returning array of n pointers to function returning character pointers.
(B) a function return array of N pointers to functions returning pointers to characters
(C) an array of n pointers to function returning pointers to characters
(D) an array of n pointers to function returning pointers to functions returning pointers to characters.

13. Which of the following is not a member of class ?
(A) Static function                (B) Friend function
(C) Const function               (D) Virtual function

14. When an array is passed as parameter to a function, which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The function can change values in the original array.
(B) In C, parameters are passed by value, the function cannot change the original value in the array.
(C) It results in compilation error when the function tries to access the elements in the array.
(D) Results in a run time error when the function tries to access the elements in the array

15. Which of the following differentiates between overloaded functions and overridden functions ?
(A) Overloading is a dynamic or runtime binding and overridden is a static or compile time binding.
(B) Overloading is a static or compile time binding and overriding is dynamic or runtime binding.
(C) Redefining a function in a friend class is called overloading, while redefining a function in a derived class is called as overridden function.
(D) Redefining a function in a derived class is called function overloading, while redefining a function in a friend class is called function overriding.

16. Division operation is ideally suited to handle queries of the type :
(A) customers who have no account in any of the branches in Delhi.
(B) customers who have an account at all branches in Delhi.
(C) customers who have an account in atleast one branch in Delhi.
(D) customers who have only joint account in any one branch in Delhi

17. Which of the following is true ?
I. Implementation of self-join is possible in SQL with table alias.
II. Outer-join operation is basic operation in relational algebra.
III. Natural join and outer join operations are equivalent.
(A) I and II are correct.           (B) II and III are correct.
(C) Only III is correct.             (D) Only I is correct.

18. What kind of mechanism is to be taken into account for converting a weak entity set into strong entity set in entity-relationship diagram ?
(A) Generalization         (B) Aggregation
(C) Specialization         (D) Adding suitable attributes

19. The best normal form of relation scheme R(A, B, C, D) along with the set of functional dependencies 

F = {AB →  C, AB → D, C → A, D → B} is

(A) Boyce-Codd Normal form    (B) Third Normal form
(C) Second Normal form            (D) First Normal form

20. Identify the minimal key for relational scheme R(A, B, C, D, E) with functional dependencies 

F = {A → B, B → C, AC → D}
(A) A            (B) AE
(C) BE          (D) CE

21. Convert the following infix expression into its equivalent post fix expression
(A + B^ D) / (E – F) + G
(A) ABD^ + EF – / G+                        (B) ABD + ^EF – / G+
(C) ABD + ^EF / – G+                        (D) ABD^ + EF / – G+

22. You have to sort a list L, consisting of a sorted list followed by a few ‘random’ elements. Which of the following sorting method would be most suitable for such a task ?
(A) Bubble sort            (B) Selection sort
(C) Quick sort            (D) Insertion sort

23. The directory can be viewed as ________ that translates filenames into their directory entries.
(A) Symbol table               (B) Partition
(C) Swap space                (D) Cache

24. Consider an array A[20, 10], assume 4 words per memory cell and the base address of array A is 100. What is the address of A[11, 5] ? Assume row major storage.
(A) 560              (B) 565
(C) 570              (D) 575

25. A full binary tree with n leaves contains
(A) n nodes                   (B) log₂ n nodes
(C) 2n –1 nodes           (D) 2 ⁿ  nodes

26. The period of a signal is 10 ms. What is its frequency in Hertz ?
(A) 10                (B) 100
(C) 1000            (D) 10000

27. In a classful addressing, first four bits in Class A IP address is
(A) 1010             (B) 1100
(C) 1011             (D) 1110

28. Which of the following algorithms is not a broadcast routing algorithm ?
(A) Flooding                                     (B) Multidestination routing
(C) Reverse path forwarding             (D) All of the above

29. An analog signal has a bit rate of 6000 bps and a baud rate of 2000 baud. How many data elements are carried by each signal element ?
(A) 0.336 bits/baud                    (B) 3 bits/baud
(C) 120,00,000 bits/baud           (D) None of the above

30. How many distinct stages are there in DES algorithm, which is parameterized by a 56-bit key ?
(A) 16           (B) 17
(C) 18          (D) 19

31. Shift-Reduce parsers perform the following :
(A) Shift step that advances in the input stream by K(K > 1) symbols and Reduce step that applies a completed grammar rule to some recent parse trees, joining them together as one tree with a new root symbol.
(B) Shift step that advances in the input stream by one symbol and Reduce step that applies a completed grammar rule to some recent parse trees, joining them together as one tree with a new root symbol.
(C) Shift step that advances in the input stream by K(K = 2) symbols and Reduce step that applies a completed grammar rule to form a single tree.
(D) Shift step that does not advance in the input stream and Reduce step that applies a completed grammar rule to form a single tree.

32. Which of the following is true ?
(A) Canonical LR parser is LR (1) parser with single look ahead terminal
(B) All LR(K) parsers with K > 1 can be transformed into LR(1) parsers.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

33. In a two-pass assembler, symbol table is
(A) Generated in first pass
(B) Generated in second pass
(C) Not generated at all
(D) Generated and used only in second pass

34. Debugger is a program that
(A) allows to examine and modify the contents of registers
(B) does not allow execution of a segment of program 

(C) allows to set breakpoints, execute a segment of program and display contents of register
(D) All of the above

35. The following Context-Free Grammar (CFG) :
S → aB | bA
A → a | as | bAA
B → b | bs | aBB
will generate
(A) odd numbers of a’s and odd numbers of b’s
(B) even numbers of a’s and even numbers of b’s
(C) equal numbers of a’s and b’s
(D) different numbers of a’s and b’s

36. Consider the following justifications for commonly using the two-level CPU scheduling :
I. It is used when memory is too small to hold all the ready processes.
II. Because its performance is same as that of the FIFO.
III. Because it facilitates putting some set of processes into memory and a choice is made from that.
IV. Because it does not allow to adjust the set of in-core processes.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) I, III and IV        (B) I and II
(C) III and IV           (D) I and III

37. A specific editor has 200 K of program text, 15 K of initial stack, 50 K of initialized data, and 70 K of bootstrap code. If five editors are started simultaneously, how much physical memory is needed if shared text is used ?
(A) 1135 K            (B) 335 K
(C) 1065 K            (D) 320 K

38. Which of the following conditions does not hold good for a solution to a critical section problem ?
(A) No assumptions may be made about speeds or the number of CPUs.
(B) No two processes may be simultaneously inside their critical sections.
(C) Processes running outside its critical section may block other processes.
(D) Processes do not wait forever to enter its critical section.

39. For the implementation of a paging scheme, suppose the average process size be x bytes, the page size be y bytes, and each page entry requires z bytes. The optimum page size that minimizes the total overhead due to the page table and the internal fragmentation loss is given by
(A)  x /2                    (B) xz / 2
(C) √ 2xz                 (D) √ xz   / 2

40. In a demand paging memory system, page table is held in registers. The time taken to service a page fault is 8 m.sec. if an empty frame is available or if the replaced page is not modified, and it takes 20 m.secs., if the replaced page is modified. What is the average access time to service a page fault assuming that the page to be replaced is modified 70% of the time ?
(A) 11.6 m.sec.          (B) 16.4 m.sec.
(C) 28 m.sec.             (D) 14 m.sec.

41. __________ are applied throughout the software process.
(A) Framework activities           (B) Umbrella activities
(C) Planning activities                (D) Construction activities

42. Requirement Development, Organizational Process Focus, Organizational Training, Risk Management and Integrated Supplier Management are process areas required to achieve maturity level
(A) Performed
(B) Managed
(C) Defined
(D) Optimized

43. The software _________ of a program or a computing system is the structure or structures of the system, which comprise software components, the externally visible properties of those components, and the relationships among them.
(A) Design
(B) Architecture
(C) Process
(D) Requirement

44. Which one of the following set of attributes should not be encompassed by effective software metrics ?
(A) Simple and computable
(B) Consistent and objective
(C) Consistent in the use of units and dimensions
(D) Programming language dependent

45. Which one of the following is used to compute cyclomatic complexity ?
(A) The number of regions – 1
(B) E – N + 1, where E is the number of flow graph edges and N is the number of flow graph nodes.
(C) P – 1, where P is the number of predicate nodes in the flow graph G.
(D) P + 1, where P is the number of predicate nodes in the flow graph G.

46. Consider the following statements S1 and S2 :
S1 : A hard handover is one in which the channel in the source cell is retained and used for a while in parallel with the channel in the target cell.
S2 : A soft handover is one in which the channel in the source cell is released and only then the channel in the target cell is engaged.
(A) S1 is true and S2 is not true.    (B) S1 is not true and S2 is true.
(C) Both S1 and S2 are true.         (D) Both S1 and S2 are not true.

47. Fact-less fact table in a data warehouse contains
(A) only measures                   (B) only dimensions
(C) keys and measures            (D) only surrogate keys

48. Which e-business model allows consumers to name their own price for products and services ?
(A) B2 B                 (B) B2 G
(C) C2 C                 (D) C2 B

49. __________ model is designed to bring prices down by increasing the number of customers who buy a particular product at once.
(A) Economic Order Quantity     (B) Inventory
(C) Data Mining                         (D) Demand-Sensitive Pricing

50. Match the following :
List – I                                                                           List – II
a. Call control protocol               i. Interface between Base Transceiver Station (BTS) and Base Station 

                                                     Controller (BSC)
b. A-bis                                      ii. Spread spectrum
c. BSMAP                                 iii. Connection management
d. CDMA                                  iv. Works between Mobile Switching Centre (MSC) and Base Station        

                                                       Subsystem (BSS)
Codes :
      a   b   c  d
(A) iii   iv  i   ii
(B) iii   i   iv  ii
(C) i   ii   iii   iv
(D) iv  iii  ii   i

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II June 2014

UGC NET June 2014 Solved question paper -II

1.      Infrared signals can be used for short range  communication  in  a  closed area using propagation.
(A)   ground            (B)    sky
(C)    line of sight    (D)    space

2.    A  bridge  has  access  to address in the same network.
(A)   Physical    (B)    Network
(C)    Datalink    (D)   Application

3.     The minimum frame length for 10 Mbps Ethernet is _____  bytes. and maximum is____ bytes   

(A)   64 & 128          (B) 128 & 1518

(C)    1518 & 3036   (D) 64 & 1518 

4.    The bit rate of a signal is 3000 bps. If each signal unit carries 6 bits, the baud rate of the signal is    .
(A)    500 baud/sec
(B)    1000 baud/sec
(C)    3000 baud/sec
(D)    18000 baud/sec.

5.    Match the following:
           List-I                                        List - II
a.    Physical layer           i    Allow resources to  network access
b.    Datalink layer          ii    Move packets from one destination to other
c.    Network layer         iii.   Process to process message delivery   
d.    Transport layer        iv.   Transmission of bit stream
e.    Application Layer    v.    Formation of frames

Codes:
          a    b    c   d    e
(A)    iv    v    ii    iii    i
(B)    v     iv    i    ii    iii
(C)    i      iii    ii   v    iv   
(D)    i      ii    iv   iii    v

6.    A grammar G is LL(1) if and only if the following conditions hold for two distinct productions A → α | β
I.    First (α) ∩ First (β) ≠ {a} where a is some terminal symbol of the grammar.
II.   First (α) ∩ First (β) ≠ λ

III.  First (α) ∩ Follow (A) = Φ if λ ∈ First (P)
(A)   I and II           (B)   I and III
(C)   II and III        (D)   I, II and III

7.    Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar ?
(A)    Removing left recursion alone
(B)    Removing the grammar alone
(C)    Removing left recursion and factoring the grammar
(D)    None of the above

8.    A shift reduce parser suffers from
(A)    shift reduce conflict only
(B)    reduce reduce conflict only
(C)    both shift reduce conflict and reduce reduce conflict
(D)    shift handle and reduce handle conflicts

9.    The   context   free   grammar, for  the language L = {aⁿb^mc^k | k = |n - m|, n≥0, m≥0,k≥0} is
(A)    S → S₁S₃, S₁ → aS₁c | S₂ | λ, 

         S₂ → aS₂b|λ., S₃ → aS₃b| S₄ | λ, 

         S₄ → bS₄c|λ 

(B)    S → S₁S₃, S₁→ aS1S2c | λ, 

         S₂ → aS₂b|λ, S₃ → aS₃b| S₄ |λ, 

         S₄ → bS₄c|λ 

(C)    S → S₁|S₂, S,→ aS1S₂c | λ, 

         S₂ → aS₂b | λ, S₃ → aS₃b | S₄ |λ, 

         S₄ → bS₄c|λ

 (D)    S → S₁ | S3, S₁ → aS₁c|S₂ | λ, 

         S₂ → aS₂b | λ, S₃ → a S₃b| S₄ | λ, 

         S₄ → bS₄c |λ

10.    The regular grammar for the language L = {w|n_a(w) and n_b(w) are both even,
              w ∈{a, b}*} is given by : (Assume, p, q, r and s are states)
(A)    p → aq | br | λ, q → bs | ap 
         r → as | bp, s → ar | bq,        p and s are initial and final states.
(B)    p → aq | br, q → bs | ap 
         r → as | bp, s → ar | bq,        p and s are initial and final states.
(C)    p → aq | br | λ, q → bs | ap 
         r → as | bp, s → ar | bq         p is both initial and final states.
(D)    p → aq | br, q → bs | ap 
         r → as | bp, s → ar | bq         p is both initial and final states.

11.    KPA in CMM stands for
(A)    Key Process Area
(B)    Key Product Area
(C)    Key Principal Area
(D)    Key Performance Area

12.    Which one of the following is not a risk management technique for managing the risk due to unrealistic schedules and budgets ?
(A)    Detailed multi source cost and schedule estimation.
(B)    Design cost
(C)    Incremental development
(D)    Information hiding

13.    ________of a system is the structure or structures of the system which comprise software elements, the externally visible properties of these elements and the relationship amongst them.
(A)    Software construction
(B)    Software evolution
(C)    Software architecture
(D)    Software reuse

14.    In function point analysis, the number of complexity adjustment factors is
(A)    10    (B)    12
(C)    14    (D)   20

15.    Regression testing is primarily related to
(A)    Functional testing
(B)    Development testing
(C)    Data flow testing
(D)    Maintenance testing

16.    How many different truth tables of the compound propositions are there that involve the propositions p & q ?
(A)   2     (B)    4
(C)    8    (D)    16

17.    A Boolean function F is called self- dual if and only if
         F(X₁, X₂, ... .X_n) = F(X₁', X₂',......X_n')
How    many    Boolean   functions   of degree n are self-dual ?
(A)    2ⁿ         (B)    (2)²ⁿ 
(C)   (2)ⁿ²      (D)     (2)^2n-1

18.    Which of the following statement(s) is (are) not correct ?
i.      The 2' s complement of 0 is 0.
ii.     In 2's complement, the left most bit cannot be used to express a quantity.
iii.     For an n-bit word (2's complement) which includes the sign bit, there are   2^n-1 positive integers, 2ⁿ⁺¹   
        negative integers and one 0 for a total of 2ⁿ unique states.
iv.     In 2's complement the significant information is contained in the 1's of positive numbers and 0's of 
        the negative numbers.
(A)   i & iv         (B)    i & ii
(C)   iii               (D)    iv

19.    The notation ∃!xP(x) denotes the proposition "there exists a unique x such that P(x) is true".
         Give the truth values of the following statements :
         I.    ∃!xP(x) → ∃xP(x)
        II.    ∃!x ¬P(x) → ¬∀xP(x) 
(A)    Both I & II are true.
(B)    Both 1 & H are false.
(C)    I - false, II - true
(D)    I - true, II - false
 
20.    Give a compound proposition involving propositions p, q and r that is true when exactly two of p, q and r are true and is false otherwise.
(A)    (p∨q∧¬ r) ∧ (p∧¬q∧ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(B)    (p∧q∧¬ r) ∧ (p∨q∧¬ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(C)   (p∧q∧¬ r) ∨ (p∧¬q∧ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(D)   (p∧q∧¬ r) ∨ (p∧¬q∧ r) ∨ (¬p∧q∧ r)

21.    Consider the graph given below as

Ans : C
 
22. The upper bound and lower bound for the number of leaves in a B-tree of degree K with height h is given by:
(A)    K^h    and 2⌈K/2⌉^h-1
(B)    K*h  and 2⌊K/2⌋^h-1 
(C)    K^h    and 2⌊K/2⌋^h-1
 (D)   K*h  and 2⌈K/2⌉^h-1

23.    Consider a complete bipartite graph K_m,n  For  which values of m and n does this, complete graph have a Hamilton circuit
(A)   m = 3. n = 2    (B)    m = 2, n = 3
(C)    m = n ≥ 2       (D)   m = n ≥ 3

24.    Big-0 estimates for the factorial function and the logarithm of the factorial function i.e. n! and log n! is given by
(A)    0(n!)andO(nlogn)
(B)    0(nn) and 0(n log n)
(C)    0(n!)andO(logn!)
(D)    0(n") and 0(Iog n!)

25.    How many cards must be chosen from a deck to guarantee that at least
i.       two aces of two kinds are chosen.
ii.      two aces are chosen.
iii.     two cards of the same kind are chosen.
iv.     two cards of two different kinds are chosen.
(A)    50.50.14,5   (B)    51.51.15,7 (C)    52.52.14,5    (D)    51,51,14,5

26.    Match the following with respect to the    mobile computing technologies :
        List-I        List-II
a.    GPRS     i.    An integrated digital radio standard
b.    GSM      ii.   3G wireless/Mobile technology
c.    UMTS    iii.  Nine different schemes for modulation and error correction
d.    EDGE     iv. An emerging wireless service that offers g mobile data
Codes :
         a    b    c    d   
(A)    iii   iv    ii    i
(B)    iv   i      ii    iii
(c)     ii    iii    iv   i
(d)     ii    i     iv   iii

27. Object Request Broker (ORB) is
I.    A software program that runs on the client as well as on the application server.
II.   A software program that runs on the client side only.
III.  A software program that runs on the application server, where most of the components reside.
(A)   I, II & III     (B)   I&II
(C)    II & III       (D)   I only

28.   A software agent is defined as
I.      A software developed for accomplishing a given task.
II.    A computer program which is capable of acting on behalf of the user in order to accomplish a given computational task.
III.    An   open   source   software   for accomplishing a given task.
(A)    I
(B)    II
(C)    III
(D)    All of the above

29.    Match the following :
       List -1                             List - II
a.   Classification            i.   Principal component analysis
b.   Clustering                ii. Branch and Bound
c.   Feature Extraction   iii. K-nearest neighbor
d.   Feature Selection    iv. K-means
Codes:
          a      b      c    d
(A)    iii      iv      ii    i
(B)    iv      iii      i     ii
(C)    iii      iv      i     ii
(D)    iv      iii      ii    i

30.    SET, an open encryption and security specification model that is designed for protecting credit card transactions on the internet, stands for
(A)    Secure Electronic Transaction
(B)    Secular Enterprise for Transaction
(C)    Security Electronic Transmission
(D)    Secured Electronic Termination

31.    In a paged memory management algorithm, the hit ratio is 70%. If it takes 30 nanoseconds to search Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) and 100 nanoseconds (ns) to access memory, the effective memory access time is
(A)    91 ns      (B)    69 ns
(Cj    200 ns    (D)    160 ns

32.    Match the following
                  List -I                                  List - II
a.    Multilevel feedback queue             i. Time-slicing
b.    FCFS                                          ii. Criteria to move processes between queues
c.    Shortest process next                   iii. Batch processing
d.    Round robin  scheduling               iv. Exponential smoothening
Codes
         a    b    c    d
(A)    i    iii    ii    iv
(B)    iv    iii    ii    i
(C)    iii    i    iv    ii
(D)    ii    iii    iv    i   

33.    Consider a system with five processes P0 through P4 and three resource types R1, R2 and R3. Resource type R, has 10 instances, R2 has 5 instances and R3 has 7 instances. Suppose that at time T0,   the following snapshot of  the system has been taken :
        Allocation
       R1    R2    R3
p0    0      1      0
p1    2      0      0
p2    3      0      2
p3    2      1      1
p4    0      2      2

    Max
R1    R2    R3
7       5      3
3       2      2
9       0      2
2       2      2
4       3      3

    Available
R1    R2    R3
3       3      2
Assume that now the process P1 requests one additional instance of type R1 and two instances of resource type R3. The state resulting after this allocation will be
(A)   Ready"state     (B)    Safe state         (C)   Blocked state          (D)   Unsafe state

34.    Match the following   
    List -1                                                   List - II
a. Contiguous allocation    i.    This scheme supports very large file sizes.
b. Linked allocation          ii.    This allocation technique supports only sequential files.
c. Indexed allocation        iii.    Number of disks required to access file is minimal.
d. Multi- level indexed      iv.   This technique suffers from maximum wastage of space in storing pointers.
Codes:       
         a       b  c   d
(A)   iii      iv   ii    i
(B)   iii      ii    iv   i
(C)   i       ii    iv   iii
(D)   i       iv   ii    iii

35.    Which of the following commands will output "onetwothree" ?
(A)    for val; do echo-n $val; done < one two three
(B)    for one two three; do echo-n-; done
(C)    for n in one two three; do echo-n $n; done
(D)    for n in one two three {echo -n $n}

36.    Mergesort makes two recursive calls. Which statement is true after these two recursive calls finish, but before the merge step ?
(A)    The array elements form a heap.
(B)    Elements in each half of the array are sorted amongst themselves.
(C)    Elements in the first half of the array are less than or equal to elements in second half of the array.
(D)    All of the above

37.    A text is made up of the characters α, β, γ, δ, σ and a with the probability 0.12, 0.40, 0.15, 0.08 and 0.25 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have the average length of
(A)    1.7    (B)    2.15
(C)    3.4    (D)    3.8

38.    Searching for an element in the hash table requires Ο(1) time for the time, whereas for direct addressing it holds for the time.
(A)    worst-case, average
(B)    worst-case, worst-case
(C)    average, worst-case
(D)    best, average

39.    An algorithm is made up of 2 modules M1  and M2.  If time  complexity of modules M1 and M2 are h(n) and g(n) respectively, the time complexity of the algorithm is
(A)    min (h(n), g(n))
(B)    max (h(n), g(n))
(C)    h(n) + g(n)
(D)    h(n)*g(n)

40.    What is the maximum number of parenthesis that will appear on the stack at any one time for parenthesis expression given by
(( )     ( ( ) )     ( ( ) ) )
(A)   2        (B)   3
(C)   4        (D)   5

41. Match the following :
    List -1                                  List - II
a. Automatic storage class   i.     Scope of the variable is global.
b. Register storage class      ii.    Value of the variable persists between different function calls.
c. Static storage class          iii.   Value stored in memory and local to the block in which the variable is defined.
d. External storage class      iv.   Value stored in CPU registers.
Codes :       
        a      b    c    d
(A)   iii     iv    i    ii
(B)   iii      iv    ii    i
(C)   iv      iii    ii    i
(D)   iv      iii    i    ii

42.    When we pass an array as an argument to a function, what actually gets passed ?
(A)    Address of the array
(B)    Values of the elements of the array
(C)    Base address of the array
(D)    Number of elements of the array

43.    While (87) printf("computer"); The above C statement will
(A)    print "computer" 87 times
(B)    print "computer" 0 times
(C)    print "computer" 1 times
(D)    print "computer" infinite times

44.    A friend function can be used to
(A)    avoid arguments between classes.
(B)    allow  access  to classes whose source code is unavailable.
(C)    allow  one  class  to  access  an unrelated class.
(D)    None of the above

45.    Which of the following is the correct value returned to the operating system upon the successful completion of a program ?
(A)    0
(B)    1
(C)    -1
(D)    Program do not return a value.

46.    Manager's salary details are hidden from the employee. This is called as
(A)    Conceptual level data hiding
(B)    Physical level data hiding
(C)    External level data hiding
(D)    Local level data hiding

47.    Which of the following statements is false ?
(A)    Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.
(B)    A relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF.
(C)    A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in 3NF relation.
(D)    A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in BCNF relation.

48.    A clustering  index  is  created when
(A)    primary key is declared and ordered
(B)    no key ordered
(C)    foreign key ordered
(D)    there is no key and no order

49.    Let R ={ A, B, C, D. E, F} be a relation schema with the following dependencies C→ F, E → A, EC → D, A → B
Which of the following is a key for R ?
(A)    CD    (B)    EC
(C)    AE    (D)    AC

50.    Match the following :
      List-I                                  List- II
a.    DDL                             i.   LOCK TABLE
b.    DML                            ii. COMMIT
c.    TCL                             iii. Natural Difference
d.    BINARY Operation     iv. REVOKE
Codes:
         a       b     C    d
(A)    ii       i      iii     iv
(B)    i       ii      iv      iii
(C)    iii     ii        i     iv
(D)    iv       i      ii     iii
 

UGC NET Solved Paper I June2013

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome 

1.' 'www' stands for

(A) work with web

(B) word wide web

(C) world wide web

(D) worth while web

2. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into

(A) Clusters (B) Sectors

(C) Vectors (D) Head

3. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a / an

(A) Compiler (B) Simulator

(C) Translator (D) Interpreter

4. A Gigabyte is equal to

(A) 1024 Megabytes

(B) 1024 Kilobytes

(C) 1024 Terabytes

(D) 1024 Bytes

S. A Compiler is software which converts

(A). Characters to bits.

(B) High level language to machine language.

(C) Machine language to high level language

(D) Words to bits

6. Virtual memory

(A) an extremely large main memory.

(B) an extremely large secondary memory.

(C) an illusion of extremely large main memory

(D) a type of memory used in super computers.

7. The phrase 'tragedy of commons" is in the context of

(A) tragic event related to damage caused by release' of poisonous gases.

(B) tragic conditions of poor people.

(C) degradation of renewable free access resources

(D) climate change

8. 'Kyoto Protocol is related to

(A) Ozone depletion’

(B) Hazardous waste

(C) Climate change

(D) Nuclear-energy

 

9. Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?

(A) Transport sector

(B) Refrigeration and Airconditioning

(C) Wetlands

(D) Fertilizers

10. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of

(A) Oxides Of sulphur 

(B) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons

(C) Carbon monoxide and SPM

(D) Oxides of sulphur and ozone

11. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?

(A) Earth quakes

(B) Forest fires

(C) Volcanic eruptions

(D) Droughts and Floods

12. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around

(A) 2 - 3 %    (B) 22-25%     (C) l0-12%    (D) < 1%

13. In which of the following categories the enrollment of students in higher in 2010 - 11 was beyond the percentage Of seats reserved ?

(A) OBC students

(B) SC students

(C) ST students

(D) Woman students

14. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?

(A) It was established in 1956~by an Act of Parliament.

(B) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.

(C) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.

(D) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities

15. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II)

Statement: Should India switch over to a two party system?

Arguments: (I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.

      (II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong;

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

16. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):

Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?

Arguments: (I) Yes, it will decriminalise politics.

                  (II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their  political opponents.

(A) Only argument (I) is strong.

(B) Only argument (II) is strong.

(C) Both the arguments are strong.

(D) Neither of the arguments is strong.

17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?

1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.

2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.

4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes :

(A) 1,2and3 (B) 1,3and4

(C) 1 and 3  (D) 1 and 4

18. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to

(A) The President

(B) The Vice-President

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Cabinet Ministers

19. The black-board can be utilized best by a teacher for
(A) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white

(B) Making the students attentive

(C) Writing the important and notable points

(D) Highlighting the teacher himself

20. Nowadays the most effective mode of learning is

(A) Self study

(B) Face-to-face learning

(C) e-Learning

(D) Blended learning
Note: Both C & D  are correct

21. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they

(A) can teach children better than men.

(B) know basic content better than men.

(C) are available on lower salaries.

(D) can deal with children with love and affection.

22. Which one is the highest order of learning?

(A) Chain learning

(B) Problem-solving learning

(C) Stimulus-response learning

(D) Conditioned-reflex learning

23. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he

(A) has control over students.

(B) commands respect from students.

(C) is more qualified than his colleagues.

(D) is very close to higher authorities.

24. “A diagram speaks more than 1000 words” The statement means that the teacher should

(A) use diagrams in teaching.

(B) speak more and more in the class.

(C) use teaching aids in the class.

(D) not speak too, much in the class.

25. A research paper

(A) is a compilation of information on a topic.

(B) contains original research as deemed by the author.

(C) contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others.

(D) can be published in more than one  journal.

26. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good 'research ethics’?

(A) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.

(B) Conducting a review' of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.

(C) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons, in a research paper.

(D) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper

27. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?

(A) Simple Random Sampling

(B) Stratified Sampling

(C) Quota Sampling

(D) Cluster Sampling

28. Which one of the following references is written as per Modem Language Association (MLA) format?

(A) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(B) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(C) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi, - Prentice Hall of India, 2005

(D) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005

29. A workshop is

(A) a conference for discussion on a topic

(B) a meeting for discussion on a topic.

(C) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher  and the students discuss a topic.

(D) a brief intensive course for a small group emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.

30. A working hypothesis is

(A) a proven hypothesis for an argument.

(B) not required to be tested

(C) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research

(D) a scientific theory

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 to 36):

The Taj Mahal has become one of the world's best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside  the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income of thirty villages given specifically for the tomb's support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb's popular name. In contemporary texts, it is generally called simply the Il1urninated Tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).

Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains 'were temporarily buried. by the grief stricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of the nver Tapti. SIX months later her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum. This land, situated south of the- Mughal city on the bank of the Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachhwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh's willing cooperation in this exchange, extant, farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum's commencement. Jai Singh's further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his "ancestral domain", to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan's additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.

Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the 'Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal', the entire complex was virtually complete.

31. Marble stone used for the construction of the Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is

(A) Burhanpur  (B) Makrana

(C) Amber        (D) Jaipur

32. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by

(A) Shah Jahan (B) Tourists

(C) Public         (D) European travelers

33. Point out the true statement from the following.

(A) Marble was not used for the construction of the Taj Maha!.

(B) Red sandstone is non-visible in the Taj Mahal complex.

(C) The Taj Mahal is surrounded by a four-quartered garden known as Chahr Bagh..

(D) The Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the 'Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal'.

34. In the contemporary texts the Taj Mahal is known

(A). Mumtazabad  (B) Mumtaz Mahal

(C) Zainabad         (D) Rauza-i-Munavvara.

35. The construction of the Taj Mahal was completed between the period

(A) 1632 - 1636 A.D.  (B) 1630 - 1643A.D.

(C) 1632 -1643 A.D.   (D) 1636 - 1643 A.D.

36. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where the Taj Mahal was built, known as

(A) Farman                       (B) Sale Deed

(C) Sale-Purchase Deed   (D) None oft he above

 37. In the process of Communication, which one Of the following is in the chronological order ?

(A) Communication, Medium, Receiver, Effect, Message

(B) Medium, Communicator, Message, Receiver, Effect

(C) Communicator, Message, Medium, Receiver, Effect

(D) Message, Communicator, Medium, Receiver, Effect

38,. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India was started in 1780 by

(A) Dr. Annie Besant

(B) James Augustus Hicky

(C) Lord Cripson

(D) AO Hume

39. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister

(A)Rajeev Gandhi

(B) Narasimha Rao

(C) Indira Gandhi

(D) Deve Gowda

40. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, internet and mobile telephony is termed as

(A) Entertainment

(B)  Interactive Communication

(C) Development Communication

(D) Communitarian

41 Classroom communication of a teacher rest on the principle of

(A) Infotainment

(B) Edutainment

(C) Entertainment

(D) Enlightenment

42 ________ is important when a teacher communicates with his / her student

 (A) Sympathy

(B) Empathy

(C) Apathy

(D) Antipathy

43. In a certain code GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by

(A) UJHFS          (B) UHJSF

(C) JHUSF          (D) HUJSF

44. In a certain cricket tournament 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The, number of teams participated in the tournament is

(A) 8      (B) 10

(C) 12    (D) 14

45. The missing number in the series

40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is

(A) 110     (B) 270

(C) 105     (D) 210

46. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in an ascending order. The number at 6^th position is

(A) 18     (B) 24

(C) 33    (D) 36

47. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100. If c = 70, then the mean of the

remaining numbers is

(A) 30        (B) 85/2

(C) 170/3   (D) 110

48. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by

(A) 20%    (B) 30%

(C) 40%     (D) 50%

49. If the statement 'some men are honest' is false, which among the following statements will be true

Choose the correct code given below

(i) All men are honest

(ii) No men are honest

(iii) Some men are not honest

(iv) All men are dishonest

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(D) (ii), (i) and (iv)

50. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question

Bee - Honey, Cow - Milk, Teacher - ?

(A) Intelligence    (B) Marks

(C) Lessons        (D) Wisdom

51. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P, If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T?

(A) Wife

(B) Sister-in-law

(C) Brother-in-law

(D) Daughter-in-law

52. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called

(A)Lexical            (B) Persuasive

(C) Stipulative     (D) Precisions

53. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?

Statements:

(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation

(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms

(iii) In Venn diagram method the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.

(iv) In Venn diagram method the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism

Codes:

(A) (i) (ii) & (iii)

(B) (i) (ii) &(iv)

(C) (ii) (iii)& (iv)

(D) (i) (iii) &(iv)

54. Inductive reasoning presupposes

(A)  Unity in human nature

(B)  Integrity in human nature

(C)  Uniformity in human nature

(D) Harmony in human nature

Read the table below and based on this table answer questions from 55 to 60 :

Area under Major Horticulture Crop

(in lakh hectares)

Year	Fruits	Vegetables	Flowers	Total Horticulture Area
2005-06	53	72	1	187
2006-07	56	75	1	194
2007-08	58	78	2	202
2008-09	61	79	2	207
2009-10	63	79	2	209

55. Which of the following, two year have recorded the highest rate increase in area under the total horticulture?

(A) 2005-06 & 2006-07

(B) 2006-07 & 2008-09

(C) 2007-08 & 2008-09

(D) 2006-07 & 2007-08

56. Shares of the area under flower vegetables and fruits in the area under total horticulture are respectively

(A) 1, 38 and 30 percent

(B) 30, 38 and 1 percent

(C) 38, 30 and 1 percent

(D) 35, 36 and 2 percent

57. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in are during 2005-06 to 2009-10 ?

(A) Fruits

(B) Vegetables

(C) Flowers

(D) Total horticulture

58. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around10 percent from 2005-06 to 2009-10

(A) Fruits

(B) Vegetables

(C) Flowers

(D) Total horticulture

59. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007- 08 ?

(A) 53 percent   (B) 68 percent

(C) 79 percent   (D) 100 percent

60. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?

(A) 2006-07    (B) 2007-08

(C) 2008-09    (D) 2009-10