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Tuesday, December 3, 2013

UGC NET Solved Paper - I Dec2013

UGC NET December 2013 Solved question paper - I

1. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council  (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

2. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment  and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A)   l and 3        (B)    l and 2
(C)   l,2 and 4     (D)   2,3 and 4

3. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction 
(D) Writ Jurisdiction 

4. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A)    1 and 3 only     (B)   2 and 4 only (C)   2, 3 and 4 only  (D)   1, 2, 3 and 4

5. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission ?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of  Rs 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
 Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

6. Who among the following conducted  the CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu

7. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A)   EKNJFTGP  (B)  EJKNFTGP    (C)  KNJFGTP     (D)  None of these

8. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7 whereas that of a mango is Rs 5/-. If the person has Rs 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A)    1    (B)    2
(C)    3    (D)   4

9.  A man pointing to a lady said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife". The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mother's sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law

10. In this series 6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7,1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each ?
(A)   4  (B)    5
(C)   6  (D)    8

11. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A)    85           (B)    60
(C)    70           (D)   65

12. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as  Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years

13. Which of the following is a social network ?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter

14.The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics


Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 15 to 20 :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Center for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO's assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organization with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long wav to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps over emphasize. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilized by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially Eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

15. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO's assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI's measures to protect the monuments

16. The inter-govemment organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration


17. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organizations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India's meaningful assistance. 

18. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of  protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A)    10 percent        (B)    11 percent        (C)    12 percent    (D)   13 percent

19. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i)   There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii)   Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii)  Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) (ii), (iii ,(iv) 
(B) (i). (ii) (iv) 
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)

20. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full  form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

21. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a  teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish   those    causing disturbance.
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class.

22. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher's satisfaction.
(B) Teacher's honesty  and commitment.
(C) Teacher's making students learn and understand.
(D) Teacher's liking for professional excellence.

23. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge

24. Arrange the following teaching  process in order:
(i) Relate  the present knowledge with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i). (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v). (ii), (iii)

25.CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.

26. Teacher's  role  at  higher  education level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.

27.The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts

28.The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation,Generalisation, Co-variation.

29. In sampling, the lottery method is used for
(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation

30. Which is the main objective of research ?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

31.Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis

32. The principles of fundamental research are used in
(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research

33. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience

34. Classroom   communication   can   be described as
(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified
(D) Discourse

35. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations

36. In communication, myths but are have power
(A) uncultural.  
(B) insignificant.
(C) imprecise.
(D) unpreferred

37. The first multi- lingual news agency of India was
(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati

38.Organisational communication can also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication.
(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication.
(D) mass communication.

39. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation

40. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does.Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna

41.A stipulative definition may be said to be
(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D) Neither true nor false

42.When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument

43.Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is.What type of argument is contained in the above passage ?
(A)    Deductive     (B)    Astrological
(C)    Analogical    (D)   Mathematical

44. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i)     All saints are religious, (major)
(ii)    Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 45 to 48 based on this table.



Number of Foreign Tourist Arrivals
2007
2008
2009
Western Europe
1686083
1799525
1610086
North America
1007276
1027297
1024469
South Asia
982428
1051846
982633
South East Asia
303475
332925
348495
East Asia
352037
355230
318292
West Asia
171661
215542
201110
Total FTAs in India
5081504
5282603
5108579

45.Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia

46. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia

47.out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia

48. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia

49. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society

50. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns

51. Internal communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS

52. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films

53. The first virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu

54. Arrange   the   following   books   in chronological   order  in  which  they appeared. Use the code given below:
(i)   Limits to Growth
(ii)  Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv)  Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

55. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification ?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America

56. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this ?
(A)    Realist    (B)  Essentialist    (C)  Feminist      (D) Deep ecology

57. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests ?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

58. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the
following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach

59. The major source of the pollutant gas,carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector

60. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A)   Methane      (B)    Hydrogen
(C)    LPG           (D)   CNG  

Sunday, June 30, 2013

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -III June2013

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. The Software Maturity Index (SMI) is defined as
SMI = [Mf -(Fa + Fc + Fd )] / Mf   Where
M= the number of modules in the current release.
F= the number of modules in the current release that have been added.
F= the number of modules in the current release that have been changed.
Fd = the number of modules in the current release that have been deleted.
The product begins to stabilize when
(A) SMI approaches  1
(B) SMI approaches  0
(C) SMI approaches -1
(D) None of the above

2. Match the following:
a. Watson- Felix model intensity                        i. Failure
b. Quick-Fix model                                          ii. Cost estimation
c. Putnam  resource allocation model                iii. Project planning
d. Logarithmetic- Poisson Model                     iv. Maintenance
Codes:
       a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) ii iv iii i

3. ________is a process model that removes defects before they can precipitate serious hazards.
(A) Incremental model
(B) Spiral model
(C) Clean room software engineering
(D) Agile model

4. Equivalence partitioning is a ______ method that divides the input domain of a program into classes of data from which test cases can be derived.
(A) White-box testing
(B) Black-box testing
(C) Orthogonal amIy testing
(D) Stress testing

5. The following three golden rules
(i) Place the user in control
(ii) Reduce the user's memory load
(iii) Make the interface consistent are for
(A) User satisfaction
(B) Good interface design
(C) Saving system's resources
(D) None of these

6.Software safety is a __________ activity that focuses on the identification and assessment of potential hazards that may affect software negatively and cause an entire system to fail.
(A) Risk mitigation, monitoring and management
(B) Software quality assurance
(C) Software cost estimation
(D) Defect removal efficiency

7. The "PROJECT' operator of a relational algebra creates a new table that has always
(A) More columns than columns in original table
(B) More rows than original table
(C) Same number of rows as the original table
(D) Same number of columns as the original table

8. The employee information of an Organization is stored in the relation:
Employee (name, sex, salary, deptname) Consider the following SQL query
Select deptname from Employee Where sex = 'M' group by deptname
having avg (salary) > {select avg (salary) from Employee}
Output of the given query corresponds to
(A) Average salary of employee more than average salary of the organization.
(B) Average salary less than average salary of the organization.
(C) Average salary of employee equal to average salary of the organization.
(D) Average salary of male employees in a department is more than average salary of the organization.

9. For a database relation R(a, b, c, d) where the domains of a. b, c. d include only the atomic values. The
functional dependency a à c, b à d holds in the following relation
(A) In INF not in 2NF
(B) In 2NF not in 3NF
(C) In 3NF
(D) In INF

10. Match the following:
a. RAID 0          i. Bit interleaved parity
b. RAID 1         ii. Non redundant stripping
c. RAID 2        iii. Mirrored disks
d. RAID 3       iv. Error correcting codes
Codes :
      a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii ii iv i
Note: Wrong options given by UGC NET

11. The golden ratio φ and its conjugate  φ both satisfy the equation
(A) x3-x-l = 0
(B) x3+x-l = 0   
(C) x2-x-l = 0
(D) x2+x-l = 0

12. The solution of recurrence relation
      T(n) = 2T{floor ( n)) + logn is
{A) O(n log log logn)
(B) O(n log logn)
(C) O(log logn)
(D) O(logn log logn)

13. In any n-clement heap, the number of nodes of height h is
(A) less than equal to [n/2h]
(B) greater than [n/2h]
(C) greater than [n/2h+1]
(D) less than equal to [n/2h+1]

14. A data file of 1,00,000 characters contains only the characters g-l, with the frequencies as indicated in table:


g
h
i
j
k
l
Frequency in thousand
45
13
12
16
9
5
using the variable-length code by Huffman codes, the file can be encoded with
(A) 2,52,000 hits
(B) 2,64,000 bits
(C) 2,46,000 hits
(D) 2,24,000 bits


15. A vertex cover of an undirected graph G(V, E) is a subset V1 ⊆ V vertices such that
(A) Each pair of vertices in  V1connected by an edge
(B) If (u, v) ∈ E then u ∈  V1 and v ∈ V1
(C) If (u, v) ∈ E then u ∈ V1 or v ∈ V1
(D) All pairs of vertices in V1 are not connected by an edge

16. In a fully connected mesh network with n devices, there are ____ physical channels to link all devices.
(A) n(n-1)/2             (B) n(n+1)/2
(C) 2n                     (D) 2n+1

17. The baud rate of a signal is 600 baud/second. If each signal unit carries 6 bits, then the bit rate of a signal is __________
(A) 3600
(B) 100
(C) 6/600
(D) None of the above
Hint: baudrate * bit =bit rate

18. Match the following:
a. Data link layer                              i. Flow  control
b. Network layer                             ii. Node to node delivery
c. Transport layer                            iii. Mail services
d. Application layer                         iv  Routing
Codes:
       a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) ii iv iii i

19. An image is 1024*800 pixels with 3 bytes/pixel. Assume the image is uncompressed. How long does it take to transmit it over a 10 -Mbps Ethernet?
(A) 196.6 seconds
(B) 19.66 seconds
(C) 1.966 seconds
(D) 0.1966 seconds
Hint: [1024*800*3*8]/10*1000*1000   converting to bits

20. The ______ measures the relative strengths of two signals or a signal at two different points.
(A) frequency
(B) attenuation
(C) throughput
(D) decibel

21. Which one of the following media is multidrop?
(A) Shielded Twisted pair cable
(B) Unshielded Twisted pair cable
(C) Thick Coaxial cable
(D) Fiber Optic cable

22. What is the baud rate of the standard 10 Mbps Ethernet?
(A) 10 megabaud    (B) 20 megabaud
(C) 30 megabaud    (D) 40 megabaud

23. At any iteration of simplex method, if ∆j (Zj - Cj)  corresponding to any non·basic variable Xj is obtained as zero, the solution under the test is
(A) Degenerate solution
(B) Unbounded solution
(C) Alternative solution
(D) Optimal solution

24. A basic feasible solution to a m-origin, n-destination transportation problem is said to be _______ if the number of positive allocations are less than m + n - 1.
(A) degenerate
(B) non-degenerate
(C) unbounded
(D) unbalanced

25. The total transportation cost in an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem
using Vogel's Approximation method is



W1
W2
W3
W4
W5
Supply
F1
4
2
3
2
6
8
F2
5
4
5
2
1
12
F3
6
5
4
7
3
14
Demand
4
4
6
8
8

(A) 76       (B) 80  (C) 90       (D) 96

26. An actor in an animation is a small  program invoked _______ per frame to detennine the characteristics of some object in the animation.
(A) once    (B) twice      (C) 30 times       (D) 60 times

27. Bresenham line drawing algorithm is attractive because it uses
(A) Real arithmetic only
(B) Integer arithmetic only
(C) Floating point arithmetic
(D) Real and integer arithmetic

28. The refresh rate above which a picture stops flickering and fuses into a steady image is called ________
(A) Crucial fusion frequency
(B) Current frequency fusion
(C) Critical fusion frequency
(D) Critically diffused frequency

29. In homogenous coordinate system (x, y. z) the points with z = 0 are called
(A) Cartesian points
(B) Parallel points
(C) Origin point
(D) Point at infinity

30. If 40 black lines interleaved with 40 white lines can be distinguished across one inch, the resolution is
(A) 40 line-pairs per inch
(B) 80 line-pairs per inch
(C) 1600 lines per inch
(D) 40 lines per inch

31. Images tend to be very large collection of data. The size of memory required for a 1024 by 1024 image in which the colour of each pixel is represented by a n-bit number, (in an 8 bit machines) is
(A) n x 8 MB
(B) n/ 8MB
(C) (1024x 1024)/8MB
(D) 1024MB

31. Arrays in C language can have ____with reference to memory representation.
(A) n-subscripts
(B) two-subscripts
(C) only one subscript
(D) three subscripts only

33. Refer the points as listed below:
(a) What are the operator precedence rules?
(b) What are the operator associativity rules?
(c) What is the order of operand evaluation?
(d) Are there restrictions on operand evaluation side effects ?
Which of the above must be considered as primary design issues for arithmetic expressions?
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

34. Hom clauses are special kinds of propositions which can be described as
(A) Single atomic proposition on left side.
(B) Single or multiple atomic proposition on left side.
(C) A single atomic proposition on left side and a single atomic proposition on right side.
(D) A single atomic proposition on left side or an empty left side.

35. Which of the following is/are the fundamental semantic model(s) of parameter passing?
(A) in mode
(B) out mode
(C) in-out mode
(D) all of the above

36. The grammar with production rules 
S à aSb|SS|λ    generates language L given by :
(A) L = {w ∈{a,b}*| na (w)= nb (w) and na (v) ≥ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}
(B) L = {w {a,b}*| na (w)= nb (w) and na (v) nb (v) where v is any prefix of w} 
(C) L = {w {a,b}*| na (w) nb (w) and na (v) ≥ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w} 
(D) L = {w {a,b}*| na (w)nb (w) and na (v) nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

37. A pushdown automation M = (Q, Σ, Γ, δ, q0, z,  F) is a set to be deterministic subject to which of the following condition(s), for every q ∈ Q, a∈Σ U{ λ } and b Γ  
(s1) δ(q, a, b) contains at most  one element
(s2) if δ(q, λ, b) is not empty than δ(q, c, b) must be empty for every c Σ
(A) only s1
(B) only s2
(C) both s1 and s2
(D) neither s1 nor s2

38. For every context free grammar (G) there exists an algorithm that passes any W L(G) in number of steps proportional to
(A) |n|w|       (B) |w|        (C) |w|2        (D) |w|3 

39. Match the following:
a. Context sensitive language                  i. Deterministic finite automation
b. Regular grammar                                ii. Recursive enumerable
c. Context free grammar                        iii. Recursive language
d. Unrestricted grammar                        iv. Pushdown automation
codes:
        a   b    c   d
(A)   ii   i    iv  iii
(B)   iii  iv   i   iii
(C)   iii  i   iv   ii
(D)   ii   iv  i    iii

  40. The statements s1 and s2 are given as :
sl : Context sensitive languages are closed under intersection. concatenation, substitution and inverse homomorphism.
s2 Context free languages are closed under complementation. substitution and homomorphism.
Which of the following is correct statement?
(A) Both s1 and s2 are correct.
(B) s1 is correct and s2 is not correct.
(C) sl is not correct and s2 is correct.
(D) Both s1 and s2 are not correct.

41. Which one of the following is not an addressing mode?
(A) Register indirect
(B) Autoincrement
(C) Relative indexed
(D) Immediate operand

42. Computers can have instruction formats with
(A) only two address and three address instructions
(B) only one address and two address instructions
(C) only one address, two address .and three address instructions
(D) zero address, one address, two address and three address instructions

43. Which is not a typical program control instruction?
(A) BR   (B) JMP    (C) SHL      (D) TST

44. Interrupt which arises from illegal or erroneous use of an instruction or data is
(A) Software interrupt
(B) Internal interrupt
(C) External interrupt
(D) All of the above

45. The simplified function in product of sums of Boolean function F(W, X, Y, Z) =Σ(0, 1,2,5,8,9.10) is
(A) (W' + X') (Y' + Z') (X' + Z)
(B) (W' + X') (Y' + Z') (X' + Z')
(C) (W' + X') (Y' + Z) (X' + Z)
(D) (W' + X') (Y + Z') (X' + Z)

46. Match the following:
a. TTL          i  High component density
b. ECL         ii Low power consumption
c. MOS        iii Evolution of  "diode-transistor-logic"
d.CMOS      iv High speed digital circuits
codes:
        a   b    c   d
(A)   iii   ii    i    iv
(B)   i    iv    i    ii
(C)   iii  iv    i   ii
(D)   i   ii    iii    iv

47. Match the following:
a. Foreign keys                                  i. Domain constraint
b. Private key                                    ii. Referential integrity
c. Event control action model             iii. Encryption
d. Data security                                 iv. Trigger
codes:
        a   b    c   d
(A)   iii   ii    i    iv
(B)   ii    i    iv   iii
(C)   iii  iv    i    ii
(D)   i   ii    iii    iv

48. When an array is passed as a parameter to a function which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The function can change values in the original array.
(B) The function cannot change values in the original array.
(C) Results in compilation error.
(D) Results in runtime error

49. Suppose you want to delete the name that occurs before "Vivek"  in an alphabetical listing. Which of the following data structures shall be most efficient for this operation?
(A) Circular linked list
(B) Doubly linked list
(C) Linked list
(D) Dequeue

50. What will be the output of the following segment of the program ?
main( )
(
char *s = "hello world";
int i = 7;
Printf("%.*s", i,s);
}
(A) Syntax error
(B) hello w
(C) hello
(D) o world
Note: All the given options are wrong - output for the given c progam is %.*s

51. Trace the error:
void main()
(
int  *b, &a;
 *b=20
printf("%d, %d", a, *b)
}
(A) No error
(B) Logical error
(C) Syntax error
(D) Semantic error

52. Match the following:
a. calloc()                      i. Frees previously allocated space
b. free()                        ii. Modifies previously allocated space
c. malloc()                   iii. Allocates space for array
d. realloc()                   iv. Allocates requested size of space
codes:
        a   b    c   d
(A)   iii   i    iv    ii
(B)   iii    ii    i    iv
(C)   iii  iv    i    ii
(D)   iv   ii    iii    i

53. Binary symmetric channel uses
(A) Half duplex protocol
(B) Full duplex protocol
(C) Bit oriented protocol
(D) None ofthe above

54. Hamming distance between 100101000110 and 110111101101 is
(A) 3    (B) 4   (C) 5     (D) 6

55. Given code word 1110001010 is to be transmitted with even parity check bit. The encoded word to be transmitted for this code is
(A) 11100010101        (B) 11100010100          (C) 1110001010         (D) 111000101

56. The number of distinct binary images which can be generated from a given binary image of right M x N are
(A) M + N       (B) M x N         (C) 2M+N          (D) 2MN

57. If  f(x, y) is a digital image, then x, y and amplitude values of f are
(A) Finite
(B) Infinite
(C) Neither finite nor infinite
(D) None of the above

58. Consider the following processes with time slice of 4 milliseconds (I/O requests are ignored) :
Process                   A B C  D
Arrival time              0 1  2  3
CPU cycle               8 4  9  5
The average tum around time of these processes will be
(A) 19.25 milliseconds
(B) 18.25 milliseconds
(C) 19.5 milliseconds
(D) 18.5 milliseconds


59. A job has four pages A, B, C, D and the main memory has two page frames only. The job needs to
process its pages in following order: ABACABDBACD Assuming that a page interrupt occurs when a new page is brought in the main memory, irrespective of whether the page is swapped out or not. The number of page interrupts in FIFO and LRU page replacement algorithms are
(A) 9 and 7      (B) 7 and 6      (C) 9 and 8       (D) 8 and 6

60. Suppose S and Q are two semaphores initialized to 1. PI and P2 are two processes which are sharing resources.
P1 has statements                          P2 has statements
wait(S) ;                                          wait(Q) ;
wait(Q) ;                                         wait(S) ;
critical-                                           critical-
section1;                                        section 2;
signal(S) ;                                      signal(Q) ;
signal(Q) ;                                      signal(S) ;
Their execution may sometimes lead to an undesirable situation called
(A) Starvation
(B) Race condition
(C) Multithreading
(D) Deadlock

61. An operating system using banker's algorithm for deadlock avoidance has ten dedicated devices (of same type) and has three processes P1, P2 and P3 with maximum resource requirements of 4, 5 and 8 respectively. There are two states of allocation of devices as follows:
State I          Processes                   P1   P2    P3
                    Devices allocated        2     3      4
State 2         Processes                    P1  P2    P3
                    Devices allocated        0     2      4
Which of the following is correct?
(A) State 1 is unsafe and state 2 is safe.
(B) State I is safe and state 2 is unsafe.
(C) Both, state I and state 2 are safe.
(D) Both, state I and state 2 are unsafe.

62. Let the time taken to switch between user mode and kernel mode of execution be T1 while time taken to switch between two user processes be T2. Which of the following is correct?
(A) T1 <T2
(B) T1 >T2
(C) T1 = T2
(D) Nothing can be said about the relation between T1 and T2

63. Working set model is used in memory management to implement the concept of
(A) Swapping
(B) Principal of Locality
(C) Segmentation
(D) Thrashing

64. A UNIX file system has 1 KB block size and 4-byte disk addresses. What is the maximum file size if the inode contains ten direct block entries, one single indirect block entry, one double indirect block entry and one triple indirect block entry ?
(A) 30 GB (B) 64 GB  (C) 16 GB (D) 1 GB
Explanation:   

65. A thread is usually defined as a light weight process because an Operating System (OS) maintains smaller data structure for a thread than for a process. In relation to this, which of the following statement is correct?
(A) OS maintains only scheduling .and accounting information for each thread.
(B) OS maintains only CPU registers for each thread.
(C) OS does not maintain a separate stack for each thread.
(D) OS does not maintain virtual memory state for each thread.

66. The versions of windows operating system like windows XP and window Vista uses following file system:
(A) FAT-16
(B) FAT-32
(C) NTFS (NT File System)
(D) All of the above

67. Which one of the following is a correct implementation of the meta-predicate "not" in PROLOG (Here G
represents a goal) ?
(A) not(G):- !, call(G), fail. not(G).
(B) not(G):- cal1(G), !, fail.not(G).
(C) not(G):- cal1(G), fail, !. not(G).
(D) not(G):- cal1(G), fail. not(G):- !.

68. Which one of the following is not an informed search technique?
(A) Hill climbing search
(B) Best first search
(C) A* search
(D) Depth first search

69. If we convert
∃u ∀v ∀x ∃y (Pf(u),v,x,y) --->  Q(u,v,y)) to ∀v ∀x (Pf(a),v,x, g(v,x)) --> Q(a,v,g(v,x))) 
This process is known as
(A) Simplification
(B) Unification
(C) Skolemization
(D) Resolution

70. Given two jugs of capacities 5 litres and 3 litres with no measuring markers on them. Assume that there
is endless supply of water. Then the minimum number of states to measure 4 litres water will be
(A) 3 (B) 4  (C) 5 (D) 7

71. The map colouring problem can be solved using which of the following technique?
(A) Means·end analysis
(B) Constraint satisfaction
(C) AO' search
(D) Breadth first search

72. Which of the following is a knowledge representation technique used to represent knowledge about stereotype situation?
(A) Semantic network
(B) Frames
(C) Scripts
(D) Conceptual Dependency

73. A fuzzy set A on R is ________ iff A(λx1 + (1- λ)x2) ≥  min [A(x1),A(x2)]
for all x1, x2 R and all λ [0,1], where min denotes the minimum operator
(A)Support
(B)α-cut
(C)Convex
(D)Concave

74. If A and B are two fuzzy sets with membership functions

μA(x) = {0.6,0.5,0.1,0.7, 0.8}
μB(x) = {0.9,0.2,0.6, 0.8, 0.5}
Then the value of  μAUB(x)will be
(A) {0.9, 0.5, 0.6, 0.8, 0.8}
(B) {0.6, 0.2, 0.1, 0.7, 0.5}
(C) {0.1, 0.5, 0.4, 0.2, 0.2}
(D) {0.1, 0.5, 0.4, 0.2, 0.3}

75. Consider a single perception with weights as given in the following figure:
The above perception can solve
(A) OR problem
(B) AND problem
(C) XOR problem
(D) All of the above