UGC NET Solved Paper I June2011

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

(A) Primary Data only

(B) Secondary Data only

(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data

(D) None of the above

2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as

(A) Descriptive Research

(B) Sample Survey

(C) Fundamental Research

(D) Applied Research

3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as

(A) Seminar

(B) Workshop

(C) Conference

(D) Symposium

4. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(A) Statement of Objectives

(B) Analysis of Data

(C) Selection of Research Tools

(D) Collection of Data

5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand

(A) the chosen texts of his own

(B) political actions

(C) historical trends

(D) his enquiries

6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of

(A) conclusions

(B) any corpus of evidence

(C) distinctiveness

(D) habitual interpretation

7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from

(A) a body of techniques

(B) the common stock of knowledge

(C) the dominance of political historians

(D) cosmological beliefs

8. What is philistinism ?

(A) Reinforcement of prejudice

(B) Fabrication of reasons

(C) The hold of land-owning classes

(D) Belief that power and its exercise matter

9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as   part of

(A) literary criticism

(B) history of science

(C) history of philosophy

(D) intellectual history

10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by a minority, is

(A) to have a licensed political class

(B) a political action

(C) a philosophy of literature

(D) the mirror-image of philistinism

11. Public communication tends to occur within a more

(A) complex structure

(B) political structure

(C) convenient structure

(D) formal structure

12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as

(A) channelisation

(B) mediation

(C) encoding

(D) decoding

13. Effective communication needs a supportive

(A) economic environment

(B) political environment

(C) social environment

(D) multi-cultural environment

14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual’s

(A) personality  (B) expectation  (C) social status  (D) coding ability

15. When communicated, institutionalized stereotypes become

(A) myths  (B) reasons  (C) experiences  (D) convictions

16. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s

(A) competence  (B) pre-disposition  (C) receptivity  (D) ethnicity

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR and then       select the pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship :

(A) fraction : decimal  (B) divisor : quotient  (C) top : bottom  (D) dividend : divisor

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

(A) 130  (B) 142  (C) 153  (D) 165

19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as

(A) BOBY  (B) COBY  (C) DOBY  (D) OOBY

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set : K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?

(A) 10/8  (B) 10/18  (C) 11/19  (D) 10/19

21. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for?

17, 19, 20, 9, 8

(A) Plane  (B) Moped  (C) Motor  (D) Tonga

22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between the 
reduction in consumption and the original consumption is

(A) 1 : 3  (B) 1 : 4  (C) 1 : 5  (D) 1 : 6 

23. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 3? 

5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6 5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5

(A) 4  (B) 5  (C) 7  (D) 3

24. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is

(A) Rectangle  (B) Circle  (C) Point  (D) Triangle

25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India?

(A) Pie diagram  (B) Chorochromatic technique  (C) Isopleth technique  (D) Dot method

26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification?

(A) Qualitative  (B) Normative  (C) Spatial  (D) Quantitative

27. Which one of the following is not a source of data ?

(A) Administrative records  (B) Population census  (C) GIS  (D) Sample survey

28. If the statement ‘some men are cruel’ is false, which of the following statements/statement are/is true ?

(i) All men are cruel.

(ii) No men are cruel.

(iii) Some men are not cruel.

(A) (i) and (iii)  (B) (i) and (ii)  (C) (ii) and (iii)  (D) (iii) only

29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols:

(A) 0 – 7  (B) 0 – 9  (C) 0 – 9, A – F  (D) None of the above

30. The binary equivalent of (–19)10 in signed magnitude system is

(A) 11101100  (B) 11101101  (C) 10010011  (D) None of these

31. DNS in internet technology stands for

(A) Dynamic Name System  (B) Domain Name System  (C) Distributed Name System (D) None of these

32. HTML stands for

(A) Hyper Text Markup Language

(B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language

(C) Hyper Text Managing Links

(D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links

33. Which of the following is type of LAN ?

(A) Ethernet  (B) Token Ring  (C) FDDI  (D) All of the above

34. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) Smart cards do not require an operating system.

(B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system.

(C) COS is smart card operating system.

(D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode.

35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year

(A) 1986  (B) 1988  (C) 1990  (D) 1992

36. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in India :

(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind

(B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind

(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind

(D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > thermal

37. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes

(A) Skeletal damage

(B) Gastrointestinal problem

(C) Dermal and nervous problems

(D) Liver/Kidney problems

38. The main precursors of winter smog are

(A) N2O and hydrocarbons

(B) NOx and hydrocarbons

(C) SO2 and hydrocarbons

(D) SO2 and ozone

39. Flash floods are caused when

(A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical windshear

(B) the atmosphere is stable

(C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear

(D) winds are catabatic

40. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is

(A) transport sector  (B) thermal power  (C) municipal waste  (D) commercial sector

41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of

(A) Andhra Pradesh  (B) Delhi  (C) Himachal Pradesh  (D) Tamil Nadu

42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by

(A) the Central Government

(B) the State Governments

(C) the University Grants Commission

(D) Private bodies and Individuals

43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India?

(A) NCTE  (B) MCI  (C) AICTE  (D) CSIR

44. Consider the following statements : Identify the statement which implies natural justice.

(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.

(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.

(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen

(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.

45. The President of India is

(A) the Head of State

(B) the Head of Government

(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government

(D) None of the above

46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?

(A) Chief Election Commissioner

(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

(D) Governor of a State

Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for Professors and circle S for Sportspersons. Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f :

47. The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor professors.

(A) d  (B) e  (C) b  (D) g

48. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and sportspersons.

(A) a  (B) c  (C) d  (D) g

49. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not artists.

(A) e  (B) f  (C) c  (D) g

Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data :
Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. 
The data, thus, obtained is as follows :

X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64

50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is

 (A) 69  (B) 68  (C) 67  (D) 66

51. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is

(A) 63  (B) 62  (C) 61  (D) 60

52. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is

(A) 66  (B) 65  (C) 64  (D) 63

53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should

(A) Allow students to do what they like.

(B) Deal with the students strictly.

(C) Give the students some problem to solve.

(D) Deal with them politely and firmly.

54. An effective teaching aid is one which

(A) is colourful and good looking

(B) activates all faculties

(C) is visible to all students

(D) easy to prepare and use

55. Those teachers are popular among students who

(A) develop intimacy with them

(B) help them solve their problems

(C) award good grades

(D) take classes on extra tuition fee

56. The essence of an effective classroom environment is

(A) a variety of teaching aids

(B) lively student-teacher interaction

(C) pin-drop silence

(D) strict discipline

57. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to introduce himself, he should

(A) ask them to meet after the class

(B) tell them about himself in brief

(C) ignore the demand and start teaching

(D) scold the student for this unwanted demand

58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the teacher

(A) frequently talks about values

(B) himself practices them

(C) tells stories of great persons

(D) talks of Gods and Goddesses

59. The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) spirit of free enquiry

(B) reliance on observation and evidence

(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge

(D) all the above

60. Research is conducted to

I. Generate new knowledge

II. Not to develop a theory

III. Obtain research degree

IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge

Which of the above are correct?

(A) I, III & II  (B) III, II & IV  (C) II, I & III  (D) I, III & IV

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II June2011

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. Any integer composed of 3n identical digits divisible by

(A) 2n  (B) 3n   (C) 5n   (D) 7n

2. The circumference of the two concentric disks are divided into 100 sections each. For the outer disk, 100 of the sections are painted red and 100 of the sections are painted blue. For the inner disk, the sections are painted red and blue in an arbitrary manner. It is possible to align the two disks so that

(A) 100 or more

(B) 125 or more

(C) 150 or more

(D) 175 or more

of the sections on the inner disks have their colours matched with the corresponding section on outer disk.

3. The proposition ~ p Ú q is equivalent to

(A) p ® q

(B) q ® p

(C) p « q

(D) p Ú q

4. The absorption law in Boolean algebra say that

(A) X + X = X

(B) X . X = X

(C) x + x . y = x

(D) None of the above

5. The number of 1’s present in the binary representation of

10 × 256 + 5 × 16 + 5 is

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

6. The hexadecimal number equivalent to (1762.46)8 is

(A) 3F2.89 (B) 3F2.98 (C) 2F3.89 (D) 2F3.98

7. (A + B)AB is equivalent to

(A) A Å B

(B) A☉B

(C) (A Å B)☉A

(D) (A☉B) Å A

 

8. A latch is constructed using two cross-coupled

(A) AND and OR gates

(B) AND gates

(C) NAND and NOR gates

(D) NAND gates

9. A multiplexer is a logic circuit that

(A) accepts one input and gives several output

(B) accepts many inputs and gives many output

(C) accepts many inputs and gives one output

(D) accepts one input and gives one output

10. 8-bit 1’s complement form of –77.25 is

(A) 01001101.0100

(B) 01001101.0010

(C) 10110010.1011

(D) 10110010.1101

11. From the point of view of the programmer, what are the major advantages of using a high-level language rather than internal machine code or assembly language ?

(A) Program portability

(B) Easy development

(C) Efficiency

(D) None of the above

12. What features make C++ so powerful ?

(A) Easy implementation

(B) Reusing old code

(C) Easy memory management

(D) All of the above

13. The goal of operator overloading is

(A) to help the user of a class

(B) to help the developer of a class

(C) to help define friend function

(D) None of the above

14. The scheme of which interpreter translates the source program is known as

(A) Paragraph by paragraph

(B) Instruction by instruction

(C) Line by line

(D) None of the above

15. Portable program means

(A) Program with wheels

(B) Independent from its authors

(C) Independent of platform

(D) None of the above

16. Which of the following is the recovery management technique in DDBMS ?

(A) 2PC (Two Phase Commit)

(B) Backup

(C) Immediate update

(D) All of the above

   17. Which of the following is the process by which a user’s privileges ascertained ?

(A) Authorization

(B) Authentication

(C) Access Control

(D) None of these

18. The basic variants of time-stamp based method of concurrency control are

(A) Total time stamp-ordering

(B) Partial time stamp-ordering

(C) Multiversion Time stamp-ordering

(D) All of the above

19. A transaction can include following basic database access operations :

(A) Read_item(X)

(B) Write_item(X)

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these

20. Decomposition help in eliminating some of the problems of bad design

(A) Redundancy

(B) Inconsistencies

(C) Anomalies

(D) All of the above

21. The number of different trees with 8 nodes is

(A) 256 (B) 255 (C) 248 (D) None of these
Hint: (2^n)-n    i.e  (2^8)-8 = 256-8 = 248

22. Given a binary tree whose inorder and preorder traversal are given by

Inorder : EICFBGDJHK

Preorder : BCEIFDGHJK

The post order traversal of the above binary tree is

(A) I E FCGJ KHDB

(B) I E FC J GKHDB

(C) I E FCGKJ HDB

(D) I E FCGJ KDBH

23. The number of disk accesses performed by insertion operation in B-tree of height h is

(A) 0(1) (B) 0(1gh) (C) 0(h) (D) None of these

24. Consider a hash table of size m = 10000 and the hash function

h(k) = └m (kA mod 1) ' ┘for A = ( √5 – 1)/ 2. The location to the key k = 123456 is

(A) 46 (B) 47 (C) 41 (D) 43

25. When the priority queue is represented by max heap, the insertion and deletion of an element can be performed in (queue containing n elements)

(A) q(n) and q(1) respectively

(B) q(n) and q(n) respectively

(C) q(1) and q(1) respectively

(D) None of the above

26. A comparison of frequency division and time division multiplexing system shows that

(A) FDM requires a lower bandwidth, but TDM has greater noise immunity.

(B) FDM has greater noise immunity and requires lower bandwidth than TDM.

(C) FDM requires channel synchronization, while TDM has greater noise immunity.

(D) FDM requires more multiplex while TDM requires band pass filter.

27. If carrier modulated by a digital bit stream, has one of the possible phase of 0, 90, 180 and 270 degrees, then modulation called

(A) BPSK (B) QPSK (C) QAM (D) MSK

28. Consider the following statement :

(i) The bandwidth of the A.M., wave depends on the band width of the modulating signal.

(ii) The bandwidth of the A.M., wave depends on the modulation index.

(iii) The bandwidth of the F.M, wave for all practical purpose depends on the amplitude of the carrier.

Of these statements the correct statements are

(A) (i, ii)

(B) (i, iii)

(C) (ii, iii)

(D) All of the above 

29. A smart modem can dial, hangup and answer incoming calls automatically. Can you tell who provides the appropriate instructions to the modem for this purpose ?

(A) Communication software

(B) Error detection protocols

(C) Link access procedure (LAP)

(D) Telecommunications

30. Which of the following switching techniques is most suitable for interactive traffic ?

(A) Circuit switching

(B) Message switching

(C) Packet switching

(D) All of the above

31. Object modules generated by assembler that contains unresolved external references are resolved for two or more object module by a/an

(A) Operating system

(B) Loader

(C) Linker

(D) Compiler

32. A special software that is used to create a job queue is called

(A) Drive

(B) Spooler

(C) Interpreter

(D) Linkage editor

33. Which of the following permanent database that has an entry for each terminal symbol ?

(A) Literal table

(B) Identifier table

(C) Terminal table

(D) Source table

34. In which way(s) a macroprocessor for assembly language can be implemented ?

(A) Independent two-pass processor

(B) Independent one-pass processor

(C) Expand macrocalls and substitute arguments

(D) All of the above

35. Which of the following can be accessed by transfer vector approach of linking ?

(A) External data segments

(B) External subroutine

(C) Data located in other procedure

(D) All of the above

36. Block or Buffer caches are used to

(A) improve disk performance

(B) handle interrupts

(C) increase the capacity of main memory

(D) speed up main memory Read operations

37. A file organization component VSAM file is

(A) Relative records data set

(B) Keyed sequential data set

(C) Entry sequential data set

(D) All of the above

38. A relationship between processes such that each has some part (critical section) which must not be executed while the critical section of another is being executed, is known as

(A) Semaphore

(B) Mutual exclusion

(C) Multiprogramming

(D) Message passing

39. How many states can a process be in ?

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5

40. Which command allows you to view your file 24 lines at a time ?

(A) More (B) Cat (C) Pg (D) None of the above

41. Which one of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers ?

(A) Process

(B) Manufacturing

(C) Method

(D) Tools

42. What is the first stage in program development ?

(A) Specification and design

(B) System Analysis

(C) Testing

(D) None of the above

43. By means of a data flow diagram, the analyst can detect

(A) Task duplication

(B) Unnecessary delays

(C) Task overlapping

(D) All of the above

44. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities ?

(A) Communication, planning, modelling, construction, deployment

(B) Communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing

(C) Analysis, designing, programming, Debugging, maintenance

(D) Analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing

45. Many causes of the software crisis can be traced to mythology based on

(A) Management Myths

(B) Customer Myths

(C) Practitioner Myths

(D) All of the above

46. Data warehousing refers to

(A) storing data offline at a separate site

(B) backing up data regularly

(C) is related to data mining

(D) uses tape as opposed to disk

47. Virtual memory is

(A) related to virtual reality

(B) a form of ROM

(C) a form of RAM

(D) None of the above

48. “M-Commerce” refers to

(A) a myth which does not exist in reality

(B) the ability of business to reach potential customers wherever they are

(C) the ability to have large capacity of memory storage dealing trade and commerce

(D) None of the above

49. The principal electronic payment systems for electronic commerce is

(A) Credit Card

(B) Digital Wallet

(C) Electronic Cheque

(D) All of the above

50. Which is the most valuable electronic commerce to the individual customer in long run ?

(A) Business to Customer

(B) Business to Business

(C) Customer to Customer

(D) None of the above