UGC NET Solved Paper I Dec2011

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. Photo bleeding means

(A) Photo cropping

(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(D) Photo colour adjustment

2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by
(A) Audience
(B) Communicator
(C) Satellite
(D) Media

3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation ?
(A) English (B) Hindi (C) Bengali  (D) Tamil

4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3  (D) 2 : 4

5. Communication with oneself is known as
(A) Organisational Communication
(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication

(D) Intrapersonal Communication

6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for
(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment

(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment

(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education

7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence ?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___
(A) 76 (B) 74 (C) 75 (D) 50

8. Find the next letter for the series MPSV..…
(A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) A

9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code ?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 4

10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’ :
(A) Definite descriptions
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases

(D) Common names

11. Assertion (A) : The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
         Reason (R) : Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanationof (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is
(A) non-symmetrical

(B) symmetrical

(C) asymmetrical
(D) transitive
Ref:: "Discrete Structures Essentials" By Research & Education Association  PgNo. 30

13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false, then which of the following inferences is
correct ? Choose from the codes given below :
1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

14. Determine the nature of the following definition :
‘Poor’ means having an annual income of ` 10,000.
(A) persuasive (B) precising (C) lexical (D) stipulative

15. Which one of the following is not an argument ?

(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.

(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.

16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.

17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may
(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion

(D) support a conclusion without entailing it

18. Which of the following statements are true ? Choose from the codes given below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 4 alone (D) 3 and 4

19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 % (B) 40 % (C) 196 % (D) 96 %

20. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways
in which hall can be illuminated is
(A) 102 (B) 1023 (C) 210 (D) 10 !

21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2 ?
(A) 100 (B) 110 (C) 120 (D) 180

22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60
students. The number of newspapers required is
(A) at least 30 (B) at most 20 (C) exactly 25 (D) exactly 5

The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the percentage
contribution to CO2 emissions from various sectors is indicated.

23. What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector ?
(A) 1.5 mmt (B) 2.5 mmt (C) 1.75 mmt (D) 0.75 mmt

24. What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors ?
(A) 3.25 mmt (B) 1.5 mmt (C) 2.5 mmt (D) 4 mmt

25. Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones ?
(A) Windows Vista

(B) Android

(C) Windows XP
(D) All of the above

26. If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all ?
(A) (1111)2 (B) (1111)8 (C) (1111)10 (D) (1111)16

27. High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following ?
(A) Oracle (B) Compiler (C) Mat lab (D) Assembler

28. HTML is used to create
(A) machine language program
(B) high level program

(C) web page

(D) web server

29. The term DNS stands for

(A) Domain Name System

(B) Defense Nuclear System
(C) Downloadable New Software
(D) Dependent Name Server

30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following :
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.

(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.

(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.

31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans ?

(A) Carbon monoxide

(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
(D) Aerosols

32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector ?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen

(B) Chlorofluorocarbons

(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons

33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India ?
(A) Solar energy

(B) Wind energy

(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy

34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil ?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants

35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard ?
(A) Earthquake
(B) Tsunami
(C) Flash floods

(D) Nuclear accident

36. Ecological footprint represents

(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement

(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover

37. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values

38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
(A) 10 (B) 07 (C) 08 (D) 09

39. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India

(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India

(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India

40. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
               List – I                                                                                     List – II
(Commissions and Committees)                                                                (Year)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission                                          (i) 2005
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I                                                           (ii) 1962
(c) K. Santhanam Committee                                                                (iii) 1966
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission                                   (iv) 1953
Codes :
      (a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India

(C) The Election Commission of India

(D) Election Department of the State Governments

42. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas

(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat

43. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible ?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.

44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the
purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.

45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief,
what will be your role as a teacher ?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.

46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid ?
(A) Blackboard (B) Diorama (C) Epidiascope (D) Globe

47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time

48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher ?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.

49. A hypothesis is a
(A) law (B) canon (C) postulate (D) supposition

50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you follow ?
(A) Area Sampling

(B) Multi-stage Sampling

(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling

51. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research

(C) Experimental Research

(D) Descriptive Research

52. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience

53. Which one of the following is a research tool ?
(A) Graph (B) Illustration (C) Questionnaire (D) Diagram

54. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60) :

The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being. The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.

55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(A) Consumerism (B) Materialism  (C) Spiritual devaluation (D) Inordinate development

56. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is (B) What ought to be (C) What can be (D) Where it is

57. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity (B) Political development (C) Sacred perception of life (D) Enlightened rationalism

58. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature

59. The contents of the passage are
(A) Descriptive (B) Prescriptive (C) Axiomatic (D) Optional

60. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material (B) matter is energy (C) nature has abundance (D) humans are irresponsible

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II Dec2011.

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. Which of the following data structure is Non-linear type ?
(A) Strings
(B) Lists
(C) Stacks

(D) None of the above

2. The total number of comparisons in a bubble sort is
(A) 0(log n)
(B) 0(n log n)
(C) 0(n)

(D) None of the above

3. Which of the following is a bad example of recursion ?
(A) Factorial

(B) Fibonacci numbers

(C) Tower of Hanai
(D) Tree traversal

4. Domain and Range of the function
Y = – √ –2x + 3 is 

(A)x≥3/2, y≥0

(B)x>3/2, y≤0

(C)x≥3/2, y≤0

(D)x≤3/2, y≤0

5. Maximum number of edges in a n- Node undirected graph without self loop is
(A) n2
(B) n(n – 1)
(C) n(n + 1)

(D)n(n – 1)/2

6. A hash table has space for 75 records, then the probability of collision before the table is 6% full.
(A) .25  (B) .20  (C) .35   (D) .30

7. BCC in the internet refers to
(A) Black carbon copy

(B) Blind carbon copy

(C) Blank carbon copy
(D) Beautiful carbon copy

8. Hub is a term used with

(A) A Star Networks

(B) A Ring Networks
(C) A Router
(D) A Bridge

9. The amount of uncertainty in a system of symbol is called
(A) Bandwidth  (B) Entropy  (C) Loss  (D) Quantum

10. Which of the following network access standard disassembler is used for connection station to a packet
switched network ?
(A) X.3 (B) X.21 (C) X.25 (D) X.75

11. A station in a network in a network forward incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue. What routing algorithm is being used ?

(A) Hot potato routing

(B) Flooding
(C) Static routing
(D) Delta routing

12. Start and stop bits are used in serial communications for
(A) Error detection
(B) Error correction

(C) Synchronization

(D) Slowing down the communication

13. For a data entry project for office staff who have never used computers before (user interface and userfriendliness are extremely important), one will use
(A) Spiral model
(B) Component based model

(C) Prototyping

(D) Waterfall model

14. An SRS
(A) establishes the basis for agreement between client and the supplier.
(B) provides a reference for validation of the final product.
(C) is a prerequisite to high quality software.
(D) all of the above.

15. McCabe’s cyclomatic metric V(G) of a graph G with n vertices, e edges and p connected component is
(A) e
(B) n

(C) e – n + p

(D) e – n + 2p

16. Emergency fixes known as patches are result of
(A) adaptive maintenance
(B) perfective maintenance

(C) corrective maintenance

(D) none of the above

17. Design recovery from source code is done during
(A) reverse engineering
(B) re-engineering
(C) reuse

(D) all of the above

18. Following is used to demonstrate that the new release of software still performs the old one did by
rerunning the old tests :
(A) Functional testing
(B) Path testing
(C) Stress testing

(D) Regression testing

19. The post order traversal of a binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the preorder traversal.
(A) ABFCDE (B) ADBFEC (C) ABDECF (D) ABDCEF

20. B + tree are preferred to binary tree in database because
(A) Disk capacities are greater than memory capacities

(B) Disk access much slower than memory access

(C) Disk data transfer rates are much less than memory data transfer rate
(D) Disk are more reliable than memory

21. What deletes the entire file except the file structure ?
(A) ERASE
(B) DELETE

(C) ZAP

(D) PACK

22. Which command classes closes text file, which has been created using “SET ALTERNATIVE” <FILE NAME> “Command” ?

(A) SET ALTERNATE OFF

(B) CLOSE DATABASE
(C) CLOSE ALTERNATE
(D) CLEAR ALL

23. Data security threats include
(A) privacy invasion
(B) hardware failure
(C) fraudulent manipulation of data

(D) encryption and decryption

24. Which of the following statements is true, when structure of database file with 20 records is modified ?
(A) ? EOF ( ) Prints. T
(B) ? BOF ( ) Prints F
(C) ? BOF ( ) Prints T
(D) ? EOF ( ) Prints F

25. The SQL Expression Select distinct T. branch name from branch T, branch S where T. assets > S. assets and S. branch-city = DELHI, finds the name of

(A) all branches that have greater asset than any branch located in DELHI.

(B) all branches that have greater assets than allocated in DELHI.
(C) the branch that has the greatest asset in DELHI.
(D) any branch that has greater asset than any branch located in DELHI.

26. Dijkestra banking algorithm in an operating system, solves the problem of

(A) deadlock avoidance

(B) deadlock recovery
(C) mutual exclusion
(D) context switching

27. The multiuser operating system, 20 requests are made to use a particular resource per hour, on an average the probability that no request are made in 45 minutes is

(A) e^–15   (B)e^–5   (C) 1 – e^–5   (D) 1 – e^–10

28. On receiving an interrupt from an I/O device, the CPU
(A) halts for predetermined time.

(B) branches off to the interrupt service routine after completion of the current instruction.

(C) branches off to the interrupt service routine immediately.
(D) hands over control of address bus and data bus to the interrupting device.

29. The maximum amount of information that is available in one portion of the disk access arm for a removal disk pack (without further movement of the arm with multiple heads)
(A) a plate of data
(B) a cylinder of data
(C) a track of data
(D) a block of data

30. Consider a logical address space of 8 pages of 1024 words mapped with memory of 32 frames. How many bits are there in the physical address ?
(A) 9 bits (B) 11 bits (C) 13 bits (D) 15 bits

31. CPU does not perform the operation
(A) data transfer
(B) logic operation
(C) arithmetic operation

(D) all of the above

32. A chip having 150 gates will be classified as
(A) SSI (B) MSI (C) LSI (D) VLSI

33. If an integer needs two bytes of storage, then the maximum value of unsigned integer is

(A) 2¹⁶  – 1

(B) 2¹⁵  – 1
(C) 2¹⁶ 
(D) 2¹⁵

34. Negative numbers cannot be represented in
(A) signed magnitude form
(B) 1’s complement form

(C) 2’s complement form

(D) none of the above

35. The cellular frequency reuse factor for the cluster size N is

(A) N

(B) N2

(C)1/N

(D)1/N2

36. X – = Y + 1 means
(A) X = X – Y + 1
(B) X = –X – Y – 1
(C) X = –X + Y + 1
(D) = X – Y – 1

37. Handoff is the mechanism that

(A) transfer an ongoing call from one base station to another

(B) initiating a new call
(C) dropping an ongoing call
(D) none of above

38. Which one of the following statement is false ?
(A) Context-free languages are closed under union.
(B) Context-free languages are closed under concatenation.
(C) Context-free languages are closed under intersection.

(D) Context-free languages are closed under Kleene closure.

39. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks except
(A) Hackers
(B) Spam

(C) Viruses

(D) Identify theft

40. Identify the incorrect statement :

(A) The ATM adoption layer is not service dependent.

(B) Logical connections in ATM are referred to as virtual channel connections.
(C) ATM is streamlined protocol with minimal error and flow control capabilities
(D) ATM is also known as cell delays.

41. Software risk estimation involves following two tasks :
(A) Risk magnitude and risk impact
(B) Risk probability and risk impact
(C) Risk maintenance and risk impact
(D) Risk development and risk impact

42. The number of bits required for an IPV 6 address is
(A) 16 (B) 32 (C) 64 (D) 128

43. The proposition ~ qvp is equivalent to

(A) p ® q

(B) q ® p

(C) p « q
(D) p Ú q

44. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
(A) has existed for over a decade.
(B) does not integrate well with the functional areas other than operations.
(C) is inexpensive to implement.

(D) automate and integrates the majority of business processes.

45. Which of the following is false concerning Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) ?
(A) It attempts to automate and integrate the majority of business processes.
(B) It shares common data and practices across the enterprise.

(C) It is inexpensive to implement.

(D) It provides and access information in a real-time environment.

46. To compare, overlay or cross analyze to maps in GIS
(A) both maps must be in digital form
(B) both maps must be at the same equivalent scale.
(C) both maps must be on the same coordinate system

(D) All of the above

47. Web Mining is not used in which of the following areas ?
(A) Information filtering

(B) Crime fighting on the internet

(C) Online transaction processing
(D) Click stream analysis.

48. A telephone conference call is an example of which type of communications ?
(A) same time / same place

(B) same time / different place

(C) different time / different place
(D) different time / same place

49. What is the probability of choosing correctly an unknown integer between 0 and 9 with 3 chances ?
(A)963/1000
(B)973/1000
(C)983/1000
(D)953/1000

50. The number of nodes in a complete binary tree of height h (with roots at level 0) is equal to

(A) 2⁰+2¹ +…….2^h

(B) 2⁰+2¹ +…….2^h-1

(C) 2⁰+2¹ +…….2^h+1

(D) 2¹ +…….2^h+1

UGC NET Solved Paper I June2011

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

(A) Primary Data only

(B) Secondary Data only

(C) Both Primary and Secondary Data

(D) None of the above

2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as

(A) Descriptive Research

(B) Sample Survey

(C) Fundamental Research

(D) Applied Research

3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as

(A) Seminar

(B) Workshop

(C) Conference

(D) Symposium

4. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

(A) Statement of Objectives

(B) Analysis of Data

(C) Selection of Research Tools

(D) Collection of Data

5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand

(A) the chosen texts of his own

(B) political actions

(C) historical trends

(D) his enquiries

6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of

(A) conclusions

(B) any corpus of evidence

(C) distinctiveness

(D) habitual interpretation

7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from

(A) a body of techniques

(B) the common stock of knowledge

(C) the dominance of political historians

(D) cosmological beliefs

8. What is philistinism ?

(A) Reinforcement of prejudice

(B) Fabrication of reasons

(C) The hold of land-owning classes

(D) Belief that power and its exercise matter

9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as   part of

(A) literary criticism

(B) history of science

(C) history of philosophy

(D) intellectual history

10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by a minority, is

(A) to have a licensed political class

(B) a political action

(C) a philosophy of literature

(D) the mirror-image of philistinism

11. Public communication tends to occur within a more

(A) complex structure

(B) political structure

(C) convenient structure

(D) formal structure

12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as

(A) channelisation

(B) mediation

(C) encoding

(D) decoding

13. Effective communication needs a supportive

(A) economic environment

(B) political environment

(C) social environment

(D) multi-cultural environment

14. A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual’s

(A) personality  (B) expectation  (C) social status  (D) coding ability

15. When communicated, institutionalized stereotypes become

(A) myths  (B) reasons  (C) experiences  (D) convictions

16. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver’s

(A) competence  (B) pre-disposition  (C) receptivity  (D) ethnicity

17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR and then       select the pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship :

(A) fraction : decimal  (B) divisor : quotient  (C) top : bottom  (D) dividend : divisor

18. Find the wrong number in the sequence

125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165

(A) 130  (B) 142  (C) 153  (D) 165

19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as

(A) BOBY  (B) COBY  (C) DOBY  (D) OOBY

20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set : K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ?

(A) 10/8  (B) 10/18  (C) 11/19  (D) 10/19

21. If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for?

17, 19, 20, 9, 8

(A) Plane  (B) Moped  (C) Motor  (D) Tonga

22. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between the 
reduction in consumption and the original consumption is

(A) 1 : 3  (B) 1 : 4  (C) 1 : 5  (D) 1 : 6 

23. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 3? 

5 8 3 7 5 8 6 3 8 5 4 5 8 4 7 6 5 5 8 3 5 8 7 5 8 2 8 5

(A) 4  (B) 5  (C) 7  (D) 3

24. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is

(A) Rectangle  (B) Circle  (C) Point  (D) Triangle

25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India?

(A) Pie diagram  (B) Chorochromatic technique  (C) Isopleth technique  (D) Dot method

26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification?

(A) Qualitative  (B) Normative  (C) Spatial  (D) Quantitative

27. Which one of the following is not a source of data ?

(A) Administrative records  (B) Population census  (C) GIS  (D) Sample survey

28. If the statement ‘some men are cruel’ is false, which of the following statements/statement are/is true ?

(i) All men are cruel.

(ii) No men are cruel.

(iii) Some men are not cruel.

(A) (i) and (iii)  (B) (i) and (ii)  (C) (ii) and (iii)  (D) (iii) only

29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols:

(A) 0 – 7  (B) 0 – 9  (C) 0 – 9, A – F  (D) None of the above

30. The binary equivalent of (–19)10 in signed magnitude system is

(A) 11101100  (B) 11101101  (C) 10010011  (D) None of these

31. DNS in internet technology stands for

(A) Dynamic Name System  (B) Domain Name System  (C) Distributed Name System (D) None of these

32. HTML stands for

(A) Hyper Text Markup Language

(B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language

(C) Hyper Text Managing Links

(D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links

33. Which of the following is type of LAN ?

(A) Ethernet  (B) Token Ring  (C) FDDI  (D) All of the above

34. Which of the following statements is true ?

(A) Smart cards do not require an operating system.

(B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system.

(C) COS is smart card operating system.

(D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode.

35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year

(A) 1986  (B) 1988  (C) 1990  (D) 1992

36. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in India :

(A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind

(B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind

(C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind

(D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > thermal

37. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes

(A) Skeletal damage

(B) Gastrointestinal problem

(C) Dermal and nervous problems

(D) Liver/Kidney problems

38. The main precursors of winter smog are

(A) N2O and hydrocarbons

(B) NOx and hydrocarbons

(C) SO2 and hydrocarbons

(D) SO2 and ozone

39. Flash floods are caused when

(A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical windshear

(B) the atmosphere is stable

(C) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear

(D) winds are catabatic

40. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is

(A) transport sector  (B) thermal power  (C) municipal waste  (D) commercial sector

41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of

(A) Andhra Pradesh  (B) Delhi  (C) Himachal Pradesh  (D) Tamil Nadu

42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by

(A) the Central Government

(B) the State Governments

(C) the University Grants Commission

(D) Private bodies and Individuals

43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India?

(A) NCTE  (B) MCI  (C) AICTE  (D) CSIR

44. Consider the following statements : Identify the statement which implies natural justice.

(A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts.

(B) Justice delayed is justice denied.

(C) Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen

(D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given.

45. The President of India is

(A) the Head of State

(B) the Head of Government

(C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government

(D) None of the above

46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India?

(A) Chief Election Commissioner

(B) Comptroller and Auditor General of India

(C) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

(D) Governor of a State

Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for Professors and circle S for Sportspersons. Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f :

47. The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor professors.

(A) d  (B) e  (C) b  (D) g

48. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and sportspersons.

(A) a  (B) c  (C) d  (D) g

49. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not artists.

(A) e  (B) f  (C) c  (D) g

Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data :
Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. 
The data, thus, obtained is as follows :

X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64

50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is

 (A) 69  (B) 68  (C) 67  (D) 66

51. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is

(A) 63  (B) 62  (C) 61  (D) 60

52. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is

(A) 66  (B) 65  (C) 64  (D) 63

53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should

(A) Allow students to do what they like.

(B) Deal with the students strictly.

(C) Give the students some problem to solve.

(D) Deal with them politely and firmly.

54. An effective teaching aid is one which

(A) is colourful and good looking

(B) activates all faculties

(C) is visible to all students

(D) easy to prepare and use

55. Those teachers are popular among students who

(A) develop intimacy with them

(B) help them solve their problems

(C) award good grades

(D) take classes on extra tuition fee

56. The essence of an effective classroom environment is

(A) a variety of teaching aids

(B) lively student-teacher interaction

(C) pin-drop silence

(D) strict discipline

57. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to introduce himself, he should

(A) ask them to meet after the class

(B) tell them about himself in brief

(C) ignore the demand and start teaching

(D) scold the student for this unwanted demand

58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the teacher

(A) frequently talks about values

(B) himself practices them

(C) tells stories of great persons

(D) talks of Gods and Goddesses

59. The essential qualities of a researcher are

(A) spirit of free enquiry

(B) reliance on observation and evidence

(C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge

(D) all the above

60. Research is conducted to

I. Generate new knowledge

II. Not to develop a theory

III. Obtain research degree

IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge

Which of the above are correct?

(A) I, III & II  (B) III, II & IV  (C) II, I & III  (D) I, III & IV

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II June2011

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. Any integer composed of 3n identical digits divisible by

(A) 2n  (B) 3n   (C) 5n   (D) 7n

2. The circumference of the two concentric disks are divided into 100 sections each. For the outer disk, 100 of the sections are painted red and 100 of the sections are painted blue. For the inner disk, the sections are painted red and blue in an arbitrary manner. It is possible to align the two disks so that

(A) 100 or more

(B) 125 or more

(C) 150 or more

(D) 175 or more

of the sections on the inner disks have their colours matched with the corresponding section on outer disk.

3. The proposition ~ p Ú q is equivalent to

(A) p ® q

(B) q ® p

(C) p « q

(D) p Ú q

4. The absorption law in Boolean algebra say that

(A) X + X = X

(B) X . X = X

(C) x + x . y = x

(D) None of the above

5. The number of 1’s present in the binary representation of

10 × 256 + 5 × 16 + 5 is

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

6. The hexadecimal number equivalent to (1762.46)8 is

(A) 3F2.89 (B) 3F2.98 (C) 2F3.89 (D) 2F3.98

7. (A + B)AB is equivalent to

(A) A Å B

(B) A☉B

(C) (A Å B)☉A

(D) (A☉B) Å A

 

8. A latch is constructed using two cross-coupled

(A) AND and OR gates

(B) AND gates

(C) NAND and NOR gates

(D) NAND gates

9. A multiplexer is a logic circuit that

(A) accepts one input and gives several output

(B) accepts many inputs and gives many output

(C) accepts many inputs and gives one output

(D) accepts one input and gives one output

10. 8-bit 1’s complement form of –77.25 is

(A) 01001101.0100

(B) 01001101.0010

(C) 10110010.1011

(D) 10110010.1101

11. From the point of view of the programmer, what are the major advantages of using a high-level language rather than internal machine code or assembly language ?

(A) Program portability

(B) Easy development

(C) Efficiency

(D) None of the above

12. What features make C++ so powerful ?

(A) Easy implementation

(B) Reusing old code

(C) Easy memory management

(D) All of the above

13. The goal of operator overloading is

(A) to help the user of a class

(B) to help the developer of a class

(C) to help define friend function

(D) None of the above

14. The scheme of which interpreter translates the source program is known as

(A) Paragraph by paragraph

(B) Instruction by instruction

(C) Line by line

(D) None of the above

15. Portable program means

(A) Program with wheels

(B) Independent from its authors

(C) Independent of platform

(D) None of the above

16. Which of the following is the recovery management technique in DDBMS ?

(A) 2PC (Two Phase Commit)

(B) Backup

(C) Immediate update

(D) All of the above

   17. Which of the following is the process by which a user’s privileges ascertained ?

(A) Authorization

(B) Authentication

(C) Access Control

(D) None of these

18. The basic variants of time-stamp based method of concurrency control are

(A) Total time stamp-ordering

(B) Partial time stamp-ordering

(C) Multiversion Time stamp-ordering

(D) All of the above

19. A transaction can include following basic database access operations :

(A) Read_item(X)

(B) Write_item(X)

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of these

20. Decomposition help in eliminating some of the problems of bad design

(A) Redundancy

(B) Inconsistencies

(C) Anomalies

(D) All of the above

21. The number of different trees with 8 nodes is

(A) 256 (B) 255 (C) 248 (D) None of these
Hint: (2^n)-n    i.e  (2^8)-8 = 256-8 = 248

22. Given a binary tree whose inorder and preorder traversal are given by

Inorder : EICFBGDJHK

Preorder : BCEIFDGHJK

The post order traversal of the above binary tree is

(A) I E FCGJ KHDB

(B) I E FC J GKHDB

(C) I E FCGKJ HDB

(D) I E FCGJ KDBH

23. The number of disk accesses performed by insertion operation in B-tree of height h is

(A) 0(1) (B) 0(1gh) (C) 0(h) (D) None of these

24. Consider a hash table of size m = 10000 and the hash function

h(k) = └m (kA mod 1) ' ┘for A = ( √5 – 1)/ 2. The location to the key k = 123456 is

(A) 46 (B) 47 (C) 41 (D) 43

25. When the priority queue is represented by max heap, the insertion and deletion of an element can be performed in (queue containing n elements)

(A) q(n) and q(1) respectively

(B) q(n) and q(n) respectively

(C) q(1) and q(1) respectively

(D) None of the above

26. A comparison of frequency division and time division multiplexing system shows that

(A) FDM requires a lower bandwidth, but TDM has greater noise immunity.

(B) FDM has greater noise immunity and requires lower bandwidth than TDM.

(C) FDM requires channel synchronization, while TDM has greater noise immunity.

(D) FDM requires more multiplex while TDM requires band pass filter.

27. If carrier modulated by a digital bit stream, has one of the possible phase of 0, 90, 180 and 270 degrees, then modulation called

(A) BPSK (B) QPSK (C) QAM (D) MSK

28. Consider the following statement :

(i) The bandwidth of the A.M., wave depends on the band width of the modulating signal.

(ii) The bandwidth of the A.M., wave depends on the modulation index.

(iii) The bandwidth of the F.M, wave for all practical purpose depends on the amplitude of the carrier.

Of these statements the correct statements are

(A) (i, ii)

(B) (i, iii)

(C) (ii, iii)

(D) All of the above 

29. A smart modem can dial, hangup and answer incoming calls automatically. Can you tell who provides the appropriate instructions to the modem for this purpose ?

(A) Communication software

(B) Error detection protocols

(C) Link access procedure (LAP)

(D) Telecommunications

30. Which of the following switching techniques is most suitable for interactive traffic ?

(A) Circuit switching

(B) Message switching

(C) Packet switching

(D) All of the above

31. Object modules generated by assembler that contains unresolved external references are resolved for two or more object module by a/an

(A) Operating system

(B) Loader

(C) Linker

(D) Compiler

32. A special software that is used to create a job queue is called

(A) Drive

(B) Spooler

(C) Interpreter

(D) Linkage editor

33. Which of the following permanent database that has an entry for each terminal symbol ?

(A) Literal table

(B) Identifier table

(C) Terminal table

(D) Source table

34. In which way(s) a macroprocessor for assembly language can be implemented ?

(A) Independent two-pass processor

(B) Independent one-pass processor

(C) Expand macrocalls and substitute arguments

(D) All of the above

35. Which of the following can be accessed by transfer vector approach of linking ?

(A) External data segments

(B) External subroutine

(C) Data located in other procedure

(D) All of the above

36. Block or Buffer caches are used to

(A) improve disk performance

(B) handle interrupts

(C) increase the capacity of main memory

(D) speed up main memory Read operations

37. A file organization component VSAM file is

(A) Relative records data set

(B) Keyed sequential data set

(C) Entry sequential data set

(D) All of the above

38. A relationship between processes such that each has some part (critical section) which must not be executed while the critical section of another is being executed, is known as

(A) Semaphore

(B) Mutual exclusion

(C) Multiprogramming

(D) Message passing

39. How many states can a process be in ?

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5

40. Which command allows you to view your file 24 lines at a time ?

(A) More (B) Cat (C) Pg (D) None of the above

41. Which one of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers ?

(A) Process

(B) Manufacturing

(C) Method

(D) Tools

42. What is the first stage in program development ?

(A) Specification and design

(B) System Analysis

(C) Testing

(D) None of the above

43. By means of a data flow diagram, the analyst can detect

(A) Task duplication

(B) Unnecessary delays

(C) Task overlapping

(D) All of the above

44. Which of these are the 5 generic software engineering framework activities ?

(A) Communication, planning, modelling, construction, deployment

(B) Communication, risk management, measurement, production, reviewing

(C) Analysis, designing, programming, Debugging, maintenance

(D) Analysis, planning, designing, programming, testing

45. Many causes of the software crisis can be traced to mythology based on

(A) Management Myths

(B) Customer Myths

(C) Practitioner Myths

(D) All of the above

46. Data warehousing refers to

(A) storing data offline at a separate site

(B) backing up data regularly

(C) is related to data mining

(D) uses tape as opposed to disk

47. Virtual memory is

(A) related to virtual reality

(B) a form of ROM

(C) a form of RAM

(D) None of the above

48. “M-Commerce” refers to

(A) a myth which does not exist in reality

(B) the ability of business to reach potential customers wherever they are

(C) the ability to have large capacity of memory storage dealing trade and commerce

(D) None of the above

49. The principal electronic payment systems for electronic commerce is

(A) Credit Card

(B) Digital Wallet

(C) Electronic Cheque

(D) All of the above

50. Which is the most valuable electronic commerce to the individual customer in long run ?

(A) Business to Customer

(B) Business to Business

(C) Customer to Customer

(D) None of the above