Tuesday, July 15, 2014

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II June 2014

UGC NET June 2014 Solved question paper -II

1.      Infrared signals can be used for short range  communication  in  a  closed area using propagation.
(A)   ground            (B)    sky
(C)    line of sight    (D)    space

2.    A  bridge  has  access  to address in the same network.
(A)   Physical    (B)    Network
(C)    Datalink    (D)   Application

3.     The minimum frame length for 10 Mbps Ethernet is _____  bytes. and maximum is____ bytes   
(A)   64 & 128          (B) 128 & 1518
(C)    1518 & 3036   (D) 64 & 1518 

4.    The bit rate of a signal is 3000 bps. If each signal unit carries 6 bits, the baud rate of the signal is    .
(A)    500 baud/sec
(B)    1000 baud/sec
(C)    3000 baud/sec
(D)    18000 baud/sec.

5.    Match the following:
           List-I                                        List - II
a.    Physical layer           i    Allow resources to  network access
b.    Datalink layer          ii    Move packets from one destination to other
c.    Network layer         iii.   Process to process message delivery   
d.    Transport layer        iv.   Transmission of bit stream
e.    Application Layer    v.    Formation of frames

    a    b    c    d    e
(A)    iv      v    ii    iii    i
(B)    v      iv    i    ii    iii
(C)    i       iii    ii    v    iv   
(D)    i       ii    iv     iii    v

6.    A grammar G is LL(1) if and only if the following conditions hold for two distinct productions A
α | β
I.    First (
α) ∩ First (β) ≠ {a} where a is some terminal symbol of the grammar.
II.    First (
α) ∩ First (β) λ
III.    First (α) ∩ Follow (A) = Φ if λ ∈ First (P)
(A)   I and II    (B)   I and III
(C)   II and III        (D)   I, II and III

7.    Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar ?
(A)    Removing left recursion alone
(B)    Removing the grammar alone
(C)    Removing left recursion and factoring the grammar
(D)    None of the above

8.    A shift reduce parser suffers from
(A)    shift reduce conflict only
(B)    reduce reduce conflict only
(C)    both shift reduce conflict and reduce reduce conflict
(D)    shift handle and reduce handle conflicts

9.    The   context   free   grammar, for  the language L = {anbmck | k = |n - m|, n
≥0, m≥0,k≥0} is
(A)    S
S1S3, S1 aS1c | S2 | λ
         S2 aS2b|λ., S3 aS3b| S4 | λ
         S4 bS4c|λ 
(B)    S S1S3, S1 aS1S2c | λ
         S2 aS2b|λ, S3 aS3b| S4 |λ
         S4 bS4c|λ 
(C)    S S1|S2, S, aS1S2c | λ
         S2 aS2b | λ, S3 aS3b | S4 |λ
         S4 bS4c|λ
 (D)    S S1 | S3, S1 aS1c|S2 | λ
         S2 aS2b | λ, S3 a S3b| S4 | λ
         S4 bS4c |λ

10.    The regular grammar for the language L = {w|n
a(w) and nb(w) are both even,
{a, b}*} is given by : (Assume, p, q, r and s are states)
(A)    p
aq | br | λ, q bs | ap 
         r as | bp, s ar | bq,        p and s are initial and final states.
(B)    p
aq | br, q bs | ap 
         r as | bp, s ar | bq,        p and s are initial and final states.
(C)    p
aq | br | λ, q bs | ap 
         r as | bp, s ar | bq         p is both initial and final states.
(D)    p
aq | br, q bs | ap 
         r as | bp, s ar | bq         p is both initial and final states.

11.    KPA in CMM stands for
(A)    Key Process Area
(B)    Key Product Area
(C)    Key Principal Area
(D)    Key Performance Area

12.    Which one of the following is not a risk management technique for managing the risk due to unrealistic schedules and budgets ?
(A)    Detailed multi source cost and schedule estimation.
(B)    Design cost
(C)    Incremental development
(D)    Information hiding

13.    ________of a system is the structure or structures of the system which comprise software elements, the externally visible properties of these elements and the relationship amongst them.
(A)    Software construction
(B)    Software evolution
(C)    Software architecture
(D)    Software reuse

14.    In function point analysis, the number of complexity adjustment factors is
(A)    10    (B)    12
(C)    14    (D)   20

15.    Regression testing is primarily related to
(A)    Functional testing
(B)    Development testing
(C)    Data flow testing
(D)    Maintenance testing

16.    How many different truth tables of the compound propositions are there that involve the propositions p & q ?
(A)   2    (B)    4
(C)    8    (D)    16

17.    A Boolean function F is called self- dual if and only if
X1, X2, ... .Xn) = F(X1', X2',......Xn')
How    many    Boolean   functions   of degree n are self-dual ?
2n         (B)    (2)2n 
(C)   (2)n2      (D)     (2)2n-1

18.    Which of the following statement(s) is (are) not correct ?
i.      The 2' s complement of 0 is 0.
ii.     In 2's complement, the left most bit cannot be used to express a quantity.
iii.     For an n-bit word (2's complement) which includes the sign bit, there are 
  2n-1 positive integers, 2n+1   
        negative integers and one 0 for a total of 2n unique states.
iv.     In 2's complement the significant information is contained in the 1's of positive numbers and 0's of 

        the negative numbers.
(A)   i & iv         (B)    i & ii
(C)   iii               (D)    iv

19.    The notation
∃!xP(x) denotes the proposition "there exists a unique x such that P(x) is true".
         Give the truth values of the following statements :
∃!xP(x) ∃xP(x)
        II.    ∃!x ¬P(x) ¬∀xP(x) 
(A)    Both I & II are true.
(B)    Both 1 & H are false.
(C)    I - false, II - true
(D)    I - true, II - false

20.    Give a compound proposition involving propositions p, q and r that is true when exactly two of p, q and r are true and is false otherwise.
(A)    (p
∨q∧¬ r) ∧ (p∧¬q∧ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(B)    (p∧q∧¬ r) (p∨q∧¬ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(C)   (p∧q∧¬ r) (p∧¬q∧ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(D)   (p∧q∧¬ r) (p∧¬q∧ r) (¬p∧q∧ r)

21.    Consider the graph given below as

22. The upper bound and lower bound for the number of leaves in a B-tree of degree K with height h is given by:
(A)    K
h    and 2⌈K/2h-1
(B)    K*h  and 2⌊K/2h-1 
(C)    Kh    and 2⌊K/2h-1
 (D)   K*h  and 2⌈K/2h-1

23.    Consider a complete bipartite graph
Km,n  For  which values of m and n does this, complete graph have a Hamilton circuit
(A)   m = 3. n = 2    (B)    m = 2, n = 3
(C)    m = n
2       (D)   m = n 3

24.    Big-0 estimates for the factorial function and the logarithm of the factorial function i.e. n! and log n! is given by
(A)    0(n!)andO(nlogn)
(B)    0(nn) and 0(n log n)
(C)    0(n!)andO(logn!)
(D)    0(n") and 0(Iog n!)

25.    How many cards must be chosen from a deck to guarantee that at least
i.       two aces of two kinds are chosen.
ii.      two aces are chosen.
iii.     two cards of the same kind are chosen.
iv.     two cards of two different kinds are chosen.
(A)    50.50.14,5   (B)    51.51.15,7 (C)    52.52.14,5    (D)    51,51,14,5

26.    Match the following with respect to the    mobile computing technologies :
    List-I        List-II
a.    GPRS    i.  An integrated digital radio standard
b.    GSM    ii. 3G wireless/Mobile technology
c.    UMTS    iii.Nine different schemes for modulation and error correction
d.    EDGE    iv. An emerging wireless service that offers g mobile data

Codes :
    a    b    c    d   
(A)    iii    iv    ii    i
(B)    iv     i    ii    iii
(c)    ii    iii    iv    i
(d)    ii    i    iv    iii

27. Object Request Broker (ORB) is
I.    A software program that runs on the client as well as on the application server.
II.   A software program that runs on the client side only.
III.  A software program that runs on the application server, where most of the components reside.
(A)   I, II & III     (B)   I&II
(C)    II & III       (D)   I only

28.   A software agent is defined as
I.      A software developed for accomplishing a given task.
II.    A computer program which is capable of acting on behalf of the user in order to accomplish a given computational task.
III.    An   open   source   software   for accomplishing a given task.
(A)    I
(B)    II
(C)    III
(D)    All of the above

29.    Match the following :
    List -1            List - II
a.   Classification            i.   Principal component analysis
b.   Clustering                ii. Branch and Bound
c.   Feature Extraction   iii. K-nearest neighbor
d.   Feature Selection    iv. K-means

    a     b      c    d
(A)    iii      iv       ii    i
(B)    iv      iii       i     ii
(C)    iii      iv       i     ii
(D)    iv      iii       ii    i

30.    SET, an open encryption and security specification model that is designed for protecting credit card transactions on the internet, stands for
(A)    Secure Electronic Transaction
(B)    Secular Enterprise for Transaction
(C)    Security Electronic Transmission
(D)    Secured Electronic Termination

31.    In a paged memory management algorithm, the hit ratio is 70%. If it takes 30 nanoseconds to search Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) and 100 nanoseconds (ns) to access memory, the effective memory access time is
(A)    91 ns      (B)    69 ns
(Cj    200 ns    (D)    160 ns

32.    Match the following
                  List -I                                  List - II
a.    Multilevel feedback queue             i. Time-slicing
b.    FCFS                                          ii. Criteria to move processes between queues
c.    Shortest process next                   iii. Batch processing
d.    Round robin  scheduling               iv. Exponential smoothening
         a    b    c    d
(A)    i    iii    ii    iv
(B)    iv    iii    ii    i
(C)    iii    i    iv    ii
(D)    ii    iii    iv    i   

33.    Consider a system with five processes P0 through P4 and three resource types R1, R2 and R3. Resource type R, has 10 instances, R2 has 5 instances and R3 has 7 instances. Suppose that at time T0,   the following snapshot of  the system has been taken :
       R1    R2    R3
p0    0      1      0
p1    2      0      0
p2    3      0      2
p3    2      1      1
p4    0      2      2

R1    R2    R3
7       5      3
3       2      2
9       0      2
2       2      2
4       3      3

R1    R2    R3
3       3      2
Assume that now the process P1 requests one additional instance of type R1 and two instances of resource type R3. The state resulting after this allocation will be
(A)   Ready"state     (B)    Safe state (C)   Blocked state (D)   Unsafe state

34.    Match the following   
    List -1                                                   List - II
a. Contiguous allocation    i.    This scheme supports very large file sizes.
b. Linked allocation          ii.    This allocation technique supports only sequential files.
c. Indexed allocation        iii.    Number of disks required to access file is minimal.
d. Multi- level indexed      iv.   This technique suffers from maximum wastage of space in storing pointers.
         a       b    c    d
(A)   iii      iv    ii    i
(B)   iii      ii    iv    i
(C)    i       ii    iv    iii
(D)    i       iv    ii    iii

35.    Which of the following commands will output "onetwothree" ?
(A)    for val; do echo-n $val; done < one two three
(B)    for one two three; do echo-n-; done
(C)    for n in one two three; do echo-n $n; done
(D)    for n in one two three {echo -n $n}

36.    Mergesort makes two recursive calls. Which statement is true after these two recursive calls finish, but before the merge step ?
(A)    The array elements form a heap.
(B)    Elements in each half of the array are sorted amongst themselves.
(C)    Elements in the first half of the array are less than or equal to elements in second half of the array.
(D)    All of the above

37.    A text is made up of the characters
α, β, γ, δ, σ and a with the probability 0.12, 0.40, 0.15, 0.08 and 0.25 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have the average length of
(A)    1.7    (B)    2.15
(C)    3.4    (D)    3.8

38.    Searching for an element in the hash table requires
Ο(1) time for the time, whereas for direct addressing it holds for the time.
(A)    worst-case, average
(B)    worst-case, worst-case
(C)    average, worst-case
(D)    best, average

39.    An algorithm is made up of 2 modules M1  and M2.  If time  complexity of modules M1 and M2 are h(n) and g(n) respectively, the time complexity of the algorithm is
(A)    min (h(n), g(n))
(B)    max (h(n), g(n))
(C)    h(n) + g(n)
(D)    h(n)*g(n)

40.    What is the maximum number of parenthesis that will appear on the stack at any one time for parenthesis expression given by
(( )     ( ( ) )     ( ( ) ) )
(A)   2        (B)   3
(C)   4        (D)   5

41. Match the following :
    List -1                List - II
a. Automatic storage class    i.    Scope of the variable is global.
b. Register storage class    ii.    Value of the variable persists between different function calls.
c. Static storage class        iii.    Value stored in memory and local to the block in which the variable is defined.
d. External storage class    iv.     Value stored in CPU registers.
Codes :       
    a      b    c    d
(A)   iii     iv    i    ii
(B)   iii      iv    ii    i
(C)   iv      iii    ii    i
(D)   iv      iii    i    ii

42.    When we pass an array as an argument to a function, what actually gets passed ?
(A)    Address of the array
(B)    Values of the elements of the array
(C)    Base address of the array
(D)    Number of elements of the array

43.    While (87) printf("computer"); The above C statement will
(A)    print "computer" 87 times
(B)    print "computer" 0 times
(C)    print "computer" 1 times
(D)    print "computer" infinite times

44.    A friend function can be used to
(A)    avoid arguments between classes.
(B)    allow  access  to classes whose source code is unavailable.
(C)    allow  one  class  to  access  an unrelated class.
(D)    None of the above

45.    Which of the following is the correct value returned to the operating system upon the successful completion of a program ?
(A)    0
(B)    1
(C)    -1
(D)    Program do not return a value.

46.    Manager's salary details are hidden from the employee. This is called as
(A)    Conceptual level data hiding
(B)    Physical level data hiding
(C)    External level data hiding
(D)    Local level data hiding

47.    Which of the following statements is false ?
(A)    Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.
(B)    A relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF.
(C)    A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in 3NF relation.
(D)    A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in BCNF relation.

48.    A clustering  index  is  created when
(A)    primary key is declared and ordered
(B)    no key ordered
(C)    foreign key ordered
(D)    there is no key and no order

49.    Let R ={ A, B, C, D. E, F} be a relation schema with the following dependencies C
F, E A, EC D, A B
Which of the following is a key for R ?
(A)    CD    (B)    EC
(C)    AE    (D)    AC

50.    Match the following :
      List-I                                  List- II
a.    DDL                             i.   LOCK TABLE
b.    DML                            ii. COMMIT
c.    TCL                             iii. Natural Difference
d.    BINARY Operation     iv. REVOKE
         a       b     C    d
(A)    ii       i      iii     iv
(B)    i       ii      iv      iii
(C)    iii     ii        i     iv
(D)    iv       i      ii     iii

Thursday, July 10, 2014

UGC NET Solved Paper - I June 2014

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1.    Which of the following are Central Universities ?
1.    Pondicherry University
2.    Vishwa Bharati
3.    H.N.B. Garhwal University
4.    Kurukshetra University
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 3       (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4       (D) 1,2 and 4

2.    Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below :
i.    Rajasthan   receives   the   highest solar radiation in the country.
ii.   India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
iii.  The maximum amount of wind power is contributed  by TamilNadu.
iv.  The primary source   of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
(A) i and ii    (B) i, ii and iii
(C) ii and iii    (D) i and iv

3.    Who among the following is the defacto executive head of the Planning Commission ?
(A)    Chairman
(B)    Deputy Chairman
(C)    Minister of State for Planning
(D)    Member Secretary

4.    Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(A)  Union
(B)  State List
(C)  Concurrent List
(D)  Residuary Powers
5.    Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement : India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
Arguments : (i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
                  (ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
(A)    Only argument (i) is strong.
(B)    Only argument (ii) is strong.
(C)    Both the arguments are strong.
(D)    Neither of the arguments is strong.

6.    Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept ?
(A)    Assam University
(B)    Delhi University
(C)    Hyderabad University
(D)    Pondicherry University

7.    Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University ?
1.    Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
2.    The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
3.    The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
4.    The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Codes :
(A) 1,2 and 4       (B) 1,3 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3       (D) 1,2, 3 and 4

8.    The e-content generation for under-graduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(B)    Consortium     for     Educational Communication
(C)    National Knowledge Commission
(D)    Indira   Gandhi   National   Open University

9.    Classroom communication is normally considered as
(A)    effective
(B)    cognitive
(C)    affective
(D)    selective

10.    Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching ?
(A)    Students asking questions
(B)    Maximum    attendance    of   the students
(C)    Pin drop silence in the classroom
(D)    Students taking notes

11.    Which one of the following is the best method of teaching ?
(A)    Lecture
(B)    Discussion
(C)    Demonstration
(D)    Narration

12.    Dyslexia is associated with
(A)    mental disorder
(B)    behavioural disorder
(C)    reading disorder
(D)    writing disorder

13.    The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(A)    positive paradigm
(B)    critical paradigm
(C)    natural paradigm
(D)    interpretative paradigm

14.    Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling ?
(A)    Simple random
(B)    Purposive
(C)    Systematic
(D)    Stratified

15.    Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
(A) Placement      (B) Diagnostic     (C) Formative      (D) Summative

16.    The research stream of immediate application is
(A)    Conceptual research
(B)    Action research
(C)    Fundamental research
(D)    Empirical research

17.    Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm ?
(A)    Peter Haggett
(B)    Von Thunen
(C)    Thomas Kuhn
(D)    John K. Wright

18.    In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(A)    the appendix
(B)    a separate chapter
(C)    the concluding chapter
(D)    the text itself

19.    A thesis statement is
(A)    an observation
(B)    a fact
(C)    an assertion
(D)    a discussion

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 20 to 24 :

Traditional Indian Values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of peoples or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the 'State', The Indian 'State's' special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances which mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loin-cloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word 'State' above must not mislead us. There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state 'sovereignty' or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian 'secularism' has an admittedly peculiar feature : It requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India's famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More's Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian : but the insistence upon the inculcation of norms, and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources, are two very different features which link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.

20.    The basic construction of Thomas More's Utopia was inspired by
(A)    Indian tradition of religious tolerance.
(B)    Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers.
(C)    Social inequality in India.
(D)    European perception of Indian State.

21.    What is the striking feature of modern India ?
(A) A replica of Utopian State    (B)    Uniform laws
(C) Adherence to traditional values    (D)   Absence of Bigotry

22.    Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State ?
(A)    Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(B)    Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic and political sense
(C)    Social integration of all groups
(D)    Cultural assimilation of all social groups.

23.    The author uses the word 'State' to highlight
(A)    Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history.
(B)    Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time.
(C)    The concept of state sovereignty.
(D)    Dependence on religion.

24.    Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian 'Secularism' ?
(A)    No discrimination on religious considerations
(B)    Total indifference to religion
(C)    No space for social identity
(D)    Disregard for social law

25.    Photographs are not easy to
(A) publish    (B) secure (C) decode    (D) change

26.    The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as
(A) sparks (B) green dots
(C) snow   (D) rain drops

27.    In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
(A) noise             (B) audience
(C) criticality       (D) feedback

28.    Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(A)    Short circuit
(B)    Contradiction
(C)    Unevenness
(D)    Entropy

29.    The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(A)    Technological theory
(B)    Dispersion theory
(C)    Minimal effects theory
(D)    Information theory

30.    The Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(A) KaranJohar           (B) Amir Khan
(C) Asha Bhonsle        (D) Gulzar

31.    Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, choosing one of the following option given:
(A) TS    (B) ST
(C) RS    (D) SR

32.    A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left. He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house ?
(B) 4 km          (D) 6 km
(A) 3 km         (C) 5 km

33.    In a post-office, stamps of three different denominations of  rs7, rs 8, rs 10 are available. The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(A) 19    (B) 20
(C) 23    (D) 29

34.    In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE ?

35.     If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22,.... is continued in the same pattern, which one of the following is not a term of this series ?
(A) 31  (C) 33
(B) 32  (D) 35

36.    If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but can not both be false, the relation between those two propositions is called
(A)    contradictory
(B)    contrary
(C)    sub-contrary
(D)    subaltern

37.    One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written ?
(A) 32    (B) 36
(C) 40    (D) 38

38.    "If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength."
The   argument  put   above  may  be called as
(A) Analogical     (B) Deductive
(C) Statistical       (D) Causal

39.    Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(A)    The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(B)    The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(C)    The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(D)    The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.

40. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B & C inter-related with each other. The circle A represents the class of Indians, the circle B represents the class of scientists and circle C represents the class of politicians, p, q, r, s ... represent different regions. Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.

(A)    q and s only
(B)    s only
(C)    s and r only
(D)    p, q and s only

41. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
(a)    All dogs are mammals.
(b)    No cats are dogs. 
(i)     No cats are mammals.
(ii)    Some cats are mammals.
(iii)    No dogs are cats.
(iv)     No dogs are non-mammals.
(A) (i) only           (B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)    (D) (ii) and (iii)

Read the following table carefully. Based upon this table answer questions from 42 to 46 : Net Area under Irrigation by sources in a country (Thousand Hectares)

government canals
private canals

wells &


Other sources

42.    Identify the source of Irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of Net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(A)    Government canals
(B)    Private canals
(C)    Tube wells and other wells
(D)    Other sources

43.    In which of the following years, share of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest ?
(A) 1998-99    (B) 2000-01
(C) 2002-03    (D) 2004-05

44.    Which of the following sources of Irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in Net area under irrigation during 1997-98 and 2005-06 ?
(A)    Government canals
(B)    Private canals
(C)    Tanks
(D)    Other sources

45.    Find out the source of Irrigation that has registered die maximum improvement in terms of percentage of Net irrigated area during 2002-03 and 2003-04.
(A)    Government canals
(B)    Tanks
(C)    Tube wells and other wells
(D)    Other sources

46.    In which of the following years, Net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate ?
(A) 1998-99 (C) 2003-04
(B) 2000-01 (D) 2005-06

47.    When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(A) RAM               (B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM        (D) TCP

48.    Which one of the following is not. the same as the other three ?
(A)    MAC address
(B)    Hardware address
(C)    Physical address
(D)    IP address

49.    Identify   the   IP   address   from   the following :
(A)    300-215 -317-3
(B)    302-215@ 417 -5
(C)    202 . 50 . 20 . 148
(D)    202-50-20-148

50.    The acronym FTP stands for
(A)    File Transfer Protocol
(B)    Fast Transfer Protocol
(C)    File Tracking Protocol
(D)    File Transfer Procedure

51.    Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format ?
(A) PNG    (B) GIF
(C) BMP    (D) GUI

52.    The first web browser is
(A)    Internet Explorer
(B)    Netscape
(C)    World Wide Web
(D)    Firefox

53.    'Lahar' is a natural disaster involving
(A)    eruption   of   large   amount   of material
(B)    strong winds
(C)    strong water waves
(D)    strong winds and water waves

54.    The population of India is about 1.2 billion. Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 Mega Joules. If this consumption is met by carbon based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 x 106 kgs, the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(A)    54 million metric tons
(B)    540 million metric tons
(C)    5400 million metric tons
(D)    2400 million metric tons

55.    Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times ?
(A)    Paris
(B)    London
(C)    Los Angeles
(D)    Beijing

56.    The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(A)    run-off urban areas
(B)    run-off from agricultural forms
(C)    sewage effluents
(D)    industrial effluents

57.    Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere ?
(A)    Chlorofluorocarbon
(B)    Carbon dioxide
(C)    Methane
(D)    Nitrous oxide

58.    In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of per-industrial times by
(A)    1.5°C     to  2°C
(B)    2.0 °C    to  3.5 °C
(C)    0.5°C     to  l0°C
(D)    0.25 °C  to 0.5 °C

59.    The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(A)    Environment
(B)    Water Resources
(C)    Home Affairs
(D)    Defense

60.    Match List - I and List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List -1                    List - II
a.    Flood             1.   Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
b.    Drought          2.   Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
c.    Earthquake     3.   A    vent    through which    molted substances come out
d.    Volcano          4.   Excess    rain    and uneven   distribution of water
             a    b    c    d
(A)       4    1    2    3
(B)       2    3    4    1
(C)        3    4    2    1
(D)       4    3    1    2