Monday, November 30, 2015

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -III June 2015

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. For the 8 - bit word 00111001, the check bits stored with it would be 0111. Suppose when the word is read from memory, the check bits are calculated to be 1101. What is the data word that was read from memory ?
(1) 10011001 (2) 00011001 (3) 00111000 (4) 11000110

2. Consider a 32 - bit microprocessor, with a 16 - bit external data bus, driven by an 8 MHz input clock. Assume that this microprocessor has a bus cycle whose minimum duration equals four input clock cycles. What is the maximum data transfer rate for this microprocessor ?
(1) 8x106 bytes/sec (2) 4 x106 bytes/sec (3) 16x106 bytes/sec (4) 4 x109 bytes/sec

3. The RST 7 instruction in 8085 microprocessor is equivalent to :
(1) CALL 0010 H         (2) CALL 0034 H      (3) CALL 0038 H         (4) CALL 003C H

4. The equivalent hexadecimal notation for octal number 2550276 is :
(1) FADED      (2) AEOBE        (3) ADOBE         (4) ACABE

5. The CPU of a system having 1 MIPS execution rate needs 4 machine cycles on an average for executing an instruction. The fifty percent of the cycles use memory bus. A memory read/ write employs one machine cycle. For execution of the programs, the system utilizes 90 percent of the CPU time. For block data transfer, an IO device is attached to the system while CPU executes the background programs continuously. What is the maximum IO data transfer rate if programmed IO data transfer technique is used ?
(1) 500 Kbytes/sec   (2) 2.2 M bytes/sec (3) 125 Kbytes/sec    (4) 250 Kbytes/sec

6. The number of flip-flops required to design a modulo - 272 counter is :
(1) 8     (2) 9     (3) 27     (4) 11

7. Let E1 and E2 be two entities in E-R diagram with simple single valued attributes. R1 and R2 are two relationships between E1 and E2 where R1 is one - many and R2 is many - many. R1 and R2 do not have any attribute of their own. How many minimum number of tables are required to represent this situation in the Relational Model ?
(1) 4      (2) 3           (3) 2         (4) 1

8. The STUDENT information in a university stored in the relation
STUDENT (Name, SEX, Marks, DEPT_Name)
Consider the following SQL Query SELECT DEPT_Name from STUDENT where SEX S 'M' group by DEPT_Name having avg (Marks) >SELECT avg (Marks) from STUDENT. It Returns the Name of the Department for which :
(1) The Average marks of Male students is more than the average marks of students in the same Department (2) The average marks of male students is more than the average marks of students in the University
(3) The average marks of male students is more than the average marks of male students in the University
(4) The average marks of students is more than the average marks of male students in the University

9. Select the 'False' statement from the following statements about Normal Forms :
(1) Lossless preserving decomposition into 3NF is always possible
(2) Lossless preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
(3) Any Relation with two attributes is in BCNF
(4) BCNF is stronger than 3NF

10. The Relation Vendor Order (V_no, V_ord_no, V_name, Qty_sup, unit_price) is in 2NF because:
(1) Nonkey attribute V_name is dependent on V_no which is part of composite key
(2) Nonkey attribute V_name is dependent on Qty_sup
(3) Key attribute Qty_sup is dependent on primary_key unit price
(4) Key attribute V_ord_no is dependent on primary_key unit price

11. The relation schemas R1 and R2 form a Lossless join decomposition of R if and only if :
(a) R1 ∩R2 ↠(R1 - R2)
(b) R1 →R2
(c) R1 ∩R2↠(R2 - R1 )
(d) R2R1 ∩R2
Codes :
(1) (a) and (b) happens        (2) (a) and (d) happens
(3) (a) and (c) happens        (4) (b) and (c) happens

12. In the indexed scheme of blocks to a file, the maximum possible size of the file depends on :
(1) The number of blocks used for index and the size of index
(2) Size of Blocks and size of Address
(3) Size of index
(4) Size of Block

13. Give the number of principal vanishing point(s) along with their direction for the standard perspective transformation :
(1) Only one in the direction K                  (2) Two in the directions I and J
(3) Three in the directions I, J and K         (4) Only two in the directions J and K

14. Consider a triangle A(0,0), 13(1,1) and C(5,2). The triangle has to be rotated by an angle of 45° about the point P(-1, -1). What shall be the coordinates of the new triangle ?
(1) A' =  ( 1, 2 - 1 ) , B' = ( -1, 2 2 - 1 ) and C' = [3 2 - 1, 9/2  2 - 1]
(2) A' =  ( 1, 2 - 1 ) , B' = ( 2 2 - 1, -1 ) and C' = [3 2 - 1, 9/2  2 - 1]
(3) A' =  ( -1, 2 - 1 ) , B' = ( -1, 2 2 - 1 ) and C' = [3 2 - 1, 9/2  2 - 1]
(4) A' =  ( 2 - 1, -1 ), B' = ( -1, 2 2 - 1 ) and C' = [3 2 - 1, 9/2  2 - 1]

15. The process of dividing an analog signal into a string of discrete outputs, each of constant amplitude, is called:
(1) Strobing    (2) Amplification     (3) Conditioning     (4) Quantization

16. Which of the following is not a basic primitive of the Graphics Kernel System (GKS) ?

17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
(a) Mapping the co-ordinates of the points and lines that form the picture into the appropriate co-ordinates on the device or workstation is known as viewing transformation.
(b) The right-handed cartesian co-ordinates system in whose co-ordinates we describe the picture is known as world co-ordinate system.
(c) The co-ordinate system that corresponds to the device or workstation where the image is to be displayed is known as physical device co-ordinate system.
(d) Left - handed co-ordinate system in which the display area of the virtual display device corresponds to the unit (Ixl) square whose lower left-hand corner is at the origin of the co-ordinate system, is known as normalized device co-ordinate system.
Codes :
(1) (a) only            (2) (a) and (b)            (3) (c) only          (4) (d) only

18. Match the following :
      List-I                                        List-II
(a) Flood Gun                   (i)   An electron gun designed to flood the entire screen with electrons.  
(b) Collector                     (ii)   Partly energised by flooding gun, stores the charge generated by the writing gun.
(c) Ground                        (iii)  Used to discharge the collector.
(d) Phosphorus grains        (iv) Used in memory - tube display and similar to those used in standard CRT.
(e) Writing Gun System      (v) Used in memory - tube display and basically the same as the electron gun used in a conventional CRT.
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (v)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(4) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (iii)

 19. Minimal deterministic finite automaton for the language L = {0n | n ≥ 0 , n ≠ 4} will have :
(1) 1 final state among 5 states         (2) 4 final states among 5 states
(3) 1 final state among 6 states         (4) 5 final states among 6 states

20. The regular expression corresponding to the language L where
L = {x  {0, 1}*  | x ends with 1 and does not contain substring 00}   is :
(1) (1+01)* (10 + 01)           (2) (1+01)* 01
(3) (1+01)* (1 + 01)             (4) (10+01)*01

21. The transition function for the language L = {w|na(w) and nb(w) are both odd} is given by :
δ(q0, a) = q1         ;   δ(q0, b) = q2
δ(q1, a) = q0         ;   δ(q1, b) = q3
δ(q2, a) = q3         ;   δ(q2, b) = q0
δ(q3, a) = q2         ;   δ(q3, b) = q1
The initial and final states of the automata are :
(1) q0 and qrespectively            (2) qand qrespectively
(3) qand qrespectively            (4) qand qrespectively

22. The clausal form of the disjunctive normal form ¬ A  ¬ B  ¬ C  D is:
(1) ABC⇒D                 (2) ABCD⇒true
(3) ABCD⇒true        (4) A  B  C  D ⇒ false

23. Which of the following is false for the programming language PROLOG ?
(1) A PROLOG variable can only be assigned to a value once
(2) PROLOG is a strongly typed language
(3) The scope of a variable in PROLOG is a single clause or rule
(4) The scope of a variable in PROLOG is a single query

24. Which one of the following is true ?
(1) The resolvent of two Horn clauses is not a Horn clause
(2) The resolvent of two Horn clauses is a Horn clause
(3) If we resolve a negated goal G against a fact or rule A to get clause C then C has positive literal or non-null goal
(4) If we resolve a negated goal G against a fact or rule A to get clause C then C has positive literal or null goal

25. Which transmission technique guarantees that data packets will be received by the receiver in the same order in which they were sent by the sender ?
(1) Broadcasting               (2) Unicasting
(3) Packet switching         (4) Circuit switching

 26. Which of the following control fields in TCP header is used to specify whether the sender has no more data to transmit ?
(1) FIN            (2) RST               (3) SYN              (4) PSH

27. Which are the two modes of IP security ?
(1) Transport and certificate                    (2) Transport and tunnel
(3) Certificate and tunnel                         (4) Preshared and transport

28. A message "COMPUTERNETWORK" encrypted (ignore quotes) using columnar transposition cipher with a key "LAYER". The encrypted message is :

29. Suppose a digitized voice channel is made by digitizing 8 kHz bandwidth analog voice signal. It is required to sample the signal at twice the highest frequency (two samples per hertz). What is the bit rate required, if it is assumed that each sample requires 8 bits ?
(1) 32 kbps        (2) 64 kbps         (3) 128 kbps          (4) 256 kbps

30. The maximum payload of a TCP segment is :
(1) 65,535            (2) 65,515            (3) 65,495           (4) 65,475

31. An all-pairs shortest-paths problem is efficiently solved using :
(1) Dijkstra' algorithm           (2) Bellman-Ford algorithm
(3) Kruskal algorithm            (4) Floyd-Warshall algorithm

32. The travelling salesman problem can be solved in :
(1) Polynomial time using dynamic programming algorithm
(2) Polynomial time using branch-and-bound algorithm
(3) Exponential time using dynamic programming algorithm or branch-and-bound algorithm
(4) Polynomial time using backtracking algorithm

33. Which of the following is asymptotically smaller ?
(1) lg(lg*n)       (2) lg*(lgn)        (3) lg(n!)         (4) lg*(n!)

34. Consider a hash table of size m = 100 and the hash function h(k) = floor (m(kA mod 1)) for  A = ( 2  -1) / 2 = 0.618033. Compute the location to which the key k = 123456 is placed in hash table.
(1) 77          (2) 82           (3) 88           (4) 89

35. Let ƒ(n) and g (n) be asymptotically non-negative functions. Which of the following is correct ?
(1) θ(ƒ(n)*g(n)) = min(ƒ(n), g(n))           (2) θ(ƒ(n)*g(n)) = max(ƒ(n), g(n))
(3) θ(ƒ(n)+g(n)) = min(ƒ(n), g(n))           (4) θ(ƒ(n)+g(n)) = max(ƒ(n), g(n))

36. The number of nodes of height h in any n - element heap is ________ .
(1) h         (2) zh             (3) ceil (n /zh )             (4) ceil (n/zh+1)

37. In Java, when we implement an interface method, it must be declared as :
(1) Private        (2) Protected          (3) Public        (4) Friend

38. The Servlet Response interface enables a servlet to formulate a response for a client using the method . (1) void log(Exceptione, Strings)              (2) void destroy ()
(3) int get ServerPort()                            (4) void set ContextType(String type)

 39. Which one of the following is correct ?
(1) Java applets can not be written in any programming language
(2) An applet is not a small program
(3) An applet can be run on its own
(4) Applets are embedded in another applications

40. In XML we can specify the frequency of an element by using the symbols :
(1) + * !    (2) # * !          (3) + * ?    (4) - * ?

41. In XML, DOCTYPE declaration specifies to include a reference to file.
(1) Document type Definition          (2) Document type declaration
(3) Document transfer definition      (4) Document type language

42. Module design is used to maximize cohesion and minimize coupling. Which of the following is the key to implement this rule?
(1) Inheritance (2) Polymorphism (3) Encapsulation (4) Abstraction

43. Verification:
(1) refers to the set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function
(2) gives answer to the question - Are we building the product right ?
(3) requires execution of software
(4) both (1) and (2)

 44. Which design matric is used to measure the compactness of the program in terms of lines of code?
(1) Consistency          (2) Conciseness          (3) Efficiency     (4) Accuracy

45. Requirements prioritisation and negotiation belongs to :
(1) Requirements validation              (2) Requirements elicitation
(3) Feasibility study                         (4) Requirements reviews

46. Adaptive maintenance is a maintenance which .
(1) correct errors that were not discovered till testing phase.
(2) is carried out to port the existing software to a new environment.
(3) improves the system performance.
(4) both (2) and (3)

 47. A Design concept Refinement is a:
(1) Top-down approach
(2) Complementary of Abstraction concept
(3) Process of elaboration
(4) All of the above

48. A software design is highly modular if :
(1) cohesion is functional and coupling is data type.
(2) cohesion is coincidental and coupling is data type.
(3) cohesion is sequential and coupling is content type.
(4) cohesion is functional and coupling is stamp type.

 49. Match the following for operating system techniques with the most appropriate advantage :
           List-I                                 List-II            
(a) Spooling                           (i)  Allows several jobs in memory to improve CPU utilization
(b) Multiprogramming            (ii) Access to shared resources among geographically dispersed computers in a transparent way
(c) Time sharing                    (iii) Overlapping I/O and computations
(d) Distributed computing      (iv)  Allows many users to share a computer simultaneously by switching processor frequently
Codes :
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

50. Which of the following statements is not true for Multi Level Feedback Queue processor scheduling algorithm ?
(1) Queues have different priorities
(2) Each queue may have different scheduling algorithm
(3) Processes are permanently assigned to a queue
(4) This algorithm can be configured to match a specific system under design

51. What is the most appropriate function of Memory Management Unit (MMU) ?
(1) It is an associative memory to store TLB
(2) It is a technique of supporting multiprogramming by creating dynamic partitions
(3) It is a chip to map virtual address to physical address
(4) It is an algorithm to allocate and deallocate main memory to a process

52. Dining Philosopher's problem is a :
(1) Producer - consumer problem        (2)  Classical IPC problem
(3) Starvation problem                         (4) Synchronization primitive

 53. In_________ allocation method for disk block allocation in a file system, insertion and deletion of blocks in a file is easy.
(1) Index    (2) Linked     (3) Contiguous    (4) Bit Map

54. A unix file may be of the type:
(1) Regular file                  (2) Directory file
(3) Device file                   (4) Any one of the above

55. Match the following :
 List-I                                           List - II
(a) Intelligence                         (i) Contextual, tacit, transfer needs learning
(b) Knowledge                        (ii) Scattered facts, easily transferable
(c) Information                        (iii) Judgemental 
(d) Data                                  (iv) Codifiable, endorsed with relevance and purpose
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

56. Match the following knowledge representation techniques with their applications :
         List-I                                  List - II
(a) Frames                               (i) Pictorial representation of objects, their attributes and relationships 
(b) Conceptual dependencies   (ii) To describe real world stereotype events
(c) Associative networks         (iii) Record like structures for grouping closely related knowledge
(d) Scripts                               (iv) Structures and primitives to represent sentences
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

57. In propositional logic P  Q is equivalent to (Where ~ denotes NOT) :
(1) ~(P Q)~(QP)       (2) (~ PQ)  (~ Q P)
(3) (P  Q)  (Q  P)      (4) ~(PQ)→ ~(QP)

58. Which of the following statements is true for Branch - and - Bound search ?
(1) Underestimates of remaining distance may cause deviation from optimal path.
(2) Overestimates can't cause right path to be overlooked.
(3) Dynamic programming principle can be used to discard redundant partial paths.
(4) All of the above

59. Match the following with respect to heuristic search techniques : 
 List-I                                                                List-II
(a) Steepest-accent Hill Climbing         (i)   Keeps track of all partial paths which can be candidate for further exploration  
(b) Branch - and - bound                    (ii)   Discover problem state(s) that satisfy a set of constraints
(c) Constraint satisfaction                    (iii)  Detects difference between current state and goal state
(d) Means-end-analysis                       (iv) Considers all moves from current state and selects best move
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

60. Match the following for methods of MIS develpoment :
           List-I                                                        List-II
(a) Joint Application Design (JAD)        (i)  Delivers functionality in rapid iteration measured in weeks and needs frequent communication, development, testing and delivery
(b) Computer Aided Software Engg      (ii) Reusable applications generally with one specific function. It is closely linked with idea of web services and service oriented architecture.
(c) Agile development                         (iii)   Tools to automate many tasks of SDLC
(d) Component based technology       (iv)  A group based tool for collecting user requirements and creating system design. Mostly used in analysis and design stages of SDLC
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

61. A context free grammar for L = { w | n0 (w) > n (w)} is given by :
(1) S→ 0|0S|1SS                      (2) S→ 0S|1S|0SS|1SS|0|1
(3) S→ 0|0S|1SS|S1S|SS1        (4) S→  0 S | 1 S | 0 | 1

62.    Given the following two statements :
S1 : If L1 and L2 are recursively enumerable languages over ∑, then L L2 and L L2 are also recursively enumerable.
S2 : The set of recursively enumerable languages is countable.
Which of the following is correct?
(1) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct
(2) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct
(3) Both S1 and S2 are not correct
(4) Both S1 and S2 are correct

63 Given the following grammars:
G1:    S→ AB|aaB
        A  aA | 
        B→ bB| 

G2:   S→ A | B
        A→ a A b|ab
        B→ a b B| 
Which of the following is correct?
(1) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is unambiguous grammars
(2) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is ambiguous grammars
(3) both G1 and G2 are ambiguous grammars
(4) both G1 and G2 are unambiguous grammars

64 Given the symbols A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H with the probabilities 1/30, 1/30, 1/30, 2/30, 3/30, 5/30, 5/30 and 12/30 respectively. The average Huffman code size in bits 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 per symbol is:
(1)67/30  (2) 70/34   (3)76/30  (4)78/30

65. The redundancy in images stems from :
(1) pixel decorrelation            (2) pixel correlation
(3) pixel quantization              (4) image size

 66. In a binary Hamming Code the number of check digits is r then number of message digits is equal to: 
(1) 2r - 1     (2) 2r - r -1     (3) 2r - r +1      (4) 2r  +r +1

 67. In the Hungarian method for solving assignment problem, an optimal assignment requires that the maximum number of lines that can be drawn through squares with zero opportunity cost be equal to the number of:
(1) rows or columns             (2) rows + columns
(3) rows + columns - 1        (4) rows + columns +1

 68. Consider the following transportation problem :
The initial basic feasible solution of the above transportation problem using Vogel's Approximation Method (VAM) is given below :

F116 (140)    2012 (60)200
F214 (40)8 (120)   18160
F3262416 (90)90
The solution of the above problem :
(1) is degenerate solution             (2) is optimum solution
(3) needs to improve                   (4) is infeasible solution

 69. Given the following statements with respect to linear programming problem :
S1 : The dual of the dual linear programming problem is again the primal problem
S2 : If either the primal or the dual problem has an unbounded objective function value, the other problem has no feasible solution.
S3 : If either the primal or dual problem has a finite optimal solution, the other one also possesses the same, and the optimal value of the objective functions of the two problems are equal.
Which of the following is true?
(1) S1 and S2         (2) S1 and S3
(3) S2 and S3         (4) S1, S2 and S3

70. Consider the two class classification task that consists of the following points :
Class C1 :[1     1.5]       [1   -1.5]
Class C2 :[-2    2.5]       [-2  -2.5]
The decision boundary between the two classes using single perceptron is given by :
(1) x1 + x2 + 1.5 = 0       (2) x1 + x2 - 1.5 = 0
(3) x1 + 1.5 = 0               (4)x1 -1.5 = 0

71. Let A and B be two fuzzy integers defined as :
A = {(1, 0.3), (2, 0.6), (3, 1), (4, 0.7), (5, 0.2)}
B = {(10, 0.5), (11, 1), (12, 0.5)}

(1) {(11, 0.8), (13, 1), (15,1)}
(2) {(11, 0.3), (12, 0.5), (13, 1), (14, 1), (15, 1), (16, 0.5), (17, 0.2)}
(3) {(11, 0.3), (12, 0.5), (13, 0.6), (14, 1), (15, 1), (16, 0.5), (17, 0.2)}
(4) {(11, 0.3), (12, 0.5), (13, 0.6), (14, 1), (15, 0.7), (16, 0.5), (17, 0.2)}

72. Suppose the function y and a fuzzy integer number around -4 for x are given as y=(x - 3)2 + 2.
Around -4 ={(2, 0.3), (3, 0.6), (4, 1), (5, 0.6), (6, 0.3)} respectively. Then f (Around -4) is given by:
(1) {(2, 0.6), (3, 0.3), (6, 1), (11, 0.3)}
(2) {(2, 0.6), (3, 1), (6, 1), (11, 0.3)}
(3) {(2, 0.6), (3, 1), (6, 0.6), (11, 0.3)}
(4) {(2, 0.6), (3, 0.3), (6, 0.6), (11, 0.3)}

 73. Match the following for unix system calls :
List-I                  List - II
(a) exec        (i)  Creates a new process
(b) brk         (ii)  Invokes another program overlaying memory space with a copy of an executable file
(c) wait        (iii) To increase or decrease the size of data region
(d) fork       (iv)  A process synchronizes with termination of child process
Codes :
     (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (vi) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

 74. WOW32 is a:
(1) Win 32 API library for creating processes and threads.
(2) Special kind of file system to the NT name space.
(3) Kernel - mode objects accessible through Win 32 API
(4) Special execution environment used to run 16 bit Windows applications on 32 - bit machines.

75. The unix command :
$vi   filel file2
(1) Edits filel and stores the contents of filel in file2
(2) Both files i.e. filel and file2 can be edited using 'ex' command to travel between the files
(3) Both files can be edited using 'mv' command to move between the files
(4) Edits filel first, saves it and then edits file2

Friday, November 27, 2015

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II June 2015

1. How many strings of 5 digits have the property that the sum of their digits is 7 ? 
(1) 66 (2) 330 (3) 495 (4) 99 

2. Consider an experiment of tossing two fair dice, one black and one red. What is the probability that the number on the black die divides the number on red die ? 
(1) 22/36 (2) 12/36  (3) 14/36  (4) 6/36 

3. In how many ways can 15 indistinguishable fish be placed into 5 different ponds, so that each pond contains atleast one fish ? 
(1) 1001 (2) 3876 (3) 775  (4) 200 

4. Consider the following statements : 
(a) Depth - first search is used to traverse a rooted tree. 
(b) Pre - order, Post-order and Inorder are used to list the vertices of an ordered rooted tree. 
(c) Huffman's algorithm is used to find an optimal binary tree with given weights. 
(d) Topological sorting provides a labelling such that the parents have larger labels than their children. 
Which of the above statements are true ?
(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (c) and (d) 
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

5. Consider a Hamiltonian Graph (G) with no loops and parallel edges. 
Which of the following is true with respect to this Graph (G) ? 
(a) deg(v)≥ n/2 for each vertex of G 
(b) |E(G)|≥ l/2(n-1)(n-2)+ 2edges 
(c) deg (v) + deg (w) ≥ n for every v and co not connected by an edge 
(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c) 

 6. Consider the following statements : 
(a) Boolean expressions and logic networks correspond to labelled acyclic digraphs. 
(b) Optimal boolean expressions may not correspond to simplest networks. 
(c) Choosing essential blocks first in a Karnaugh map and then greedily choosing the largest remaining blocks to cover may not give an optimal expression. 
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct ? 
(1) (a) only
(2) (b) only 
(3) (a)and(b)
(4) (a), (b) and (c) 

7. Consider a full - adder with the following input values : 
(a) x = l, y = 0 and Ci (carry input) = 0 
(b) x = 0,y = l and Ci = l 
Compute the values of S(sum) and Co(carry output) for the above input values. 
(1) S = l, Co =0 and S= 0, Co=l    (2) S = 0,Co =0 and S= l, Co =1 
(3) S = l, Co = l and S= 0, Co= 0  (4) S = 0,Co = l and S= l, Co = 0  

8. "If my computations are correct and I pay the electric bill, then I will run out of money. If I don't pay the electric bill, the power will be turned off. Therefore, if I don't run out of money and the power is still on, then my computations are incorrect."
Convert this argument into logical notations using the variables c, b, r, p for propositions of computations, electric bills, out of money and the power respectively. (Where ¬ means NOT) 
(1) if (c∧b)→r and ¬b→¬p, then (¬r∧p)→¬
(2) if (c∨b)→r and ¬b→¬p, then (r∧P)→c 
(3) if (c∧b)→r and ¬p→¬b, then (¬r∨p)→¬
(4) if (c∨b)→r and ¬b→¬p, then (¬r∧p)→¬

 9. Match the following : 
List-I                                                      List - II 
(a) (p→q)⇔(¬q→¬p)                         (i) Contrapositive 
(b) [(p∧q)→r]⇔[p→(q→r)]              (ii) Exportation law 
(C) (p→q)⇔[(p∧¬q)→o]                  (iii) Reductio ad absurdum 
(d) (p↔q)⇔[(p→q)∧(q→p)              (iv) Equivalence 
Codes : 
     (a) (b) (c) (d) 
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) 
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 
(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 

10. Consider a proposition given as: 
" x≥ 6, if x2≥ 25 and its proof as: 
If x≥6, then x2 = x.x≥6-6 = 36≥25 
Which of the following is correct the given proposition and its proof ? 
(a) The proof shows the converse of what is to be proved. 
(b) The proof starts by assuming what is to be shown. 
(c) The proof is correct and there is nothing wrong. 
(1) (a) only
(2) (c) only
(3) (a) and (b) 
(4) (b) only 

11. What is the output of the following program ? 
(Assume that the appropriate preprocessor directives are included and there is no syntax error) 
main () { 
 printf ("%C", * (& S[3])); 
 printf ("%s",S+ 4); 
 printf ("%u", S);
 /* Base address of S is 1000 */ } 
(1) ABCDEFGH1000
(2) CDEFGH1000 
(3) DDEFGHH1000
(4) DEFGH1000 

12. Which of the following, in C++, is inherited in a derived class from base class ? 
(1) constructor (2) destructor (3) data members (4) virtual methods 

13. Given that x = 7.5, j = P1.0, n = 1.0, m = 2.0 thevalueofPPx I j==x>n> = mis: 
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 

14. Which of the following is incorrect in C++ ? 
(1) When we write overloaded function we must code the function for each usage. 
(2) When we write function template we code the function only once. 
(3) It is difficult to debug macros 
(4) Templates are more efficient than macros 

15. When the inheritance is private, the private methods in base class are in the derived class (in C++). 
(1) inaccessible (2) accessible (3) protected (4) public 

 16. An Assertion is a predicate expressing a condition we wish database to always satisfy. The correct syntax for Assertion is: 

17. Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock ? 
(a) z - phase Locking 
(b) Time stamp - ordering 
(1) Both (a) and (b)
(2) (a) only 
(3) (b)only
(4) Neither (a) nor (b) 

18. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a Table referenced by constraint. 
(a) Primary key 
 (b) Sub key
(c) Super key
(d) Foreign key 
(1) (a)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) 
(3) (d)
(4) (a) and (d) 

19. Database applications were built directly on top of file system to overcome the following drawbacks of using file-systems: 
(a) Data redundancy and inconsistency 
(b) Difficulty in accessing Data 
(c) Data isolation 
(d) Integrity problems 
(1) (a)
(2) (a) and (d) 
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 

20. For a weak entity set to be meaningful, it must be associated combination with some of their attribute values, is called as : 
(1) Neighbour Set (2) Strong Entity Set (3) Owner Entity Set (4) Weak Set 

21. Consider the given graph Its Minimum Cost Spanning Tree is . 
Ans: (2)

22. The inorder and preorder Traversal of binary Tree are dbeafcg and abdecfg respectively. The post-order Traversal is . 
(1)  dbefacg (2) debfagc (3) dbefcga (4) debfgca 

23. Level order Traversal of a rooted Tree can be done by starting from root and performing : 
(1) Breadth First Search (2) Depth First Search (3) Root Search (4) Deep Search 

 24. The average case occurs in the Linear Search Algorithm when : 
(1) The item to be searched is in some where middle of the Array 
(2) The item to be searched is not in the array 
(3) The item to be searched is in the last of the array 
(4) The item to be searched is either in the last or not in the array 

25. To determine the efficiency of an algorithm the time factor is measured by : 
(1) Counting micro seconds
(2) Counting number of key operations 
(3) Counting number of statements 
(4) Counting kilobytes of algorithm 

26. Which of the following protocols is an application layer protocol that establishes, manages and terminates multimedia sessions ? 
(1) Session Maintenance Protocol 
(2) Real - time Streaming Protocol 
(3) Real - time Transport Control Protocol 
(4) Session Initiation Protocol

 27. Match the following port numbers with their uses : 
 List-I                                        List-II 
(a) 23                                (i) World wide web 
(b) 25                                (ii) Remote Login 
(c) 80                                (iii) USENET news 
(d) 119                              (iv) E-mail 
Codes : 
      (a) (b) (c) (d) 
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) 
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) 

28. Which of the following is not associated with the session layer ? 
(1) Dialog control (2) Token management (3) Semantics of the information transmitted (4) Synchronization 

29. What is the size of the 'total length' field in IPv 4 datagram ? 
(1) 4 bits (2) 8 bits (3) 16 bits (4) 32 bits 

30. Which of the following is/are restriction(s) in classless addressing ? 
(1) The number of addresses needs to be a power of 2. 
(2) The mask needs to be included in the address to define the block. 
(3) The starting address must be divisible by the number of addresses in the block. 
(4) All of the above 

31. Match the following : 
(a) Forward Reference Table          (i) Assembler directive 
(b) Mnemonic Table                       (ii) Uses array data structure 
(c) Segment Register Table             (iii) Contains machine OP code  
(d) EQU                                         (iv) Uses linked list data structure
Codes : 
     (a) (b) (c) (d) 
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) 
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 

32. The translator which performs macro calls expansion is called : 
(1) Macro processor (2) Micro pre - processor (3) Macro pre - processor (4) Dynamic Linker 

33. If all the production rules have single non - terminal symbol on the left side, the grammar defined is: 
(1) context free grammar (2) context sensitive grammar (3) unrestricted grammar (4) phrase grammar 

34. Which one from the following is false ? 
(1) LALR parser is Bottom - Up parser 
(2) A parsing algorithm which performs a left to right scanning and a right most deviation is RL (1). 
(3) LR parser is Bottom-Up parser. 
(4) In LL(1), the 1 indicates that there is a one - symbol look - ahead. 

35. Which phase of compiler generates stream of atoms ? 
(1) Syntax Analysis (2) Lexical Analysis (3) Code Generation (4) Code Optimization 

 36. A disk drive has 100 cyclinders, numbered 0 to 99. Disk requests come to the disk driver for cyclinders 12, 26, 24, 4, 42, 8 and 50 in that order. The driver is currently serving a request at cyclinder 24. A seek takes 6 msec per cyclinder moved. How much seek time is needed for shortest seek time first (SSTF) algorithm ? 
(1) 0.984 sec (2) 0.396 sec (3) 0.738 sec (4) 0.42 sec 

37. Let R and P be two processes, R be the set of variables read from memory, and W be the set of variables3 written to memory. For the concurrent execution of two processes P. and P which of the following conditions is not true ? 
 (1) R(Pi)nW(P) S 0 (2) W(Pi)nR(P) S 0 (3) R(Pi)nR(Pjj S 0 (4) W(P;) n W(r>) S O 

38. A LRU page replacement is used with four page frames and eight pages. How many page faults will occur with the reference string 0172327103 if the four frames are initially empty ? 
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 8 

39. What does the following command do? grep Pvn"abc"* 
(1) It will print all of the lines in the file x that match the search string "abc". 
(2) It will print all of the lines in file x that do not match the search string "abc". 
(3) It will print the total number of lines in the file x that match the string "abc". 
(4) It will print the specific line numbers of the file x in which there is a match for string "abc". 

40. The Unix Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes, the process table and the user structure. Which of the following information is not the part of user structure ? 
(1) File descriptor table (2) System call state (3) Scheduling parameters (4) Kernel stack 

41. Match the following : 
(a) Size-oriented metrics        (i)  uses number of external interfaces as one of the measurement parameter. 
(b) Function-oriented             (ii) originally designed to be applied to business information metrics systems. 
(c) Extended Function           (iii) derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity Point metrics measures by considering the size of the software. 
(d) Function point                 (iv) uses algorithm characteristics as one of the measurement parameter. 
Codes : 
     (a) (b) (c) (d) 
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) 
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) 
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 

 42. In which testing strategy requirements established during requirements analysis are validated against developed software ? 
(1) Validation testing (2) Integration testing (3) Regression testing (4) System testing 

43. Which process model is also called as classic life cycle model ? 
(1) Waterfall model (2) RAD model (3) Prototyping model (4) Incremental model 

44. Cohesion is an extension of: 
(1) Abstraction concept (2) Refinment concept (3) Information hiding concept (4) Modularity 

45. Which one from the following is highly associated activity of project planning ?
(1) Keep track of the project progress.
(2) Compare actual and planned progress and costs.
(3) Identify the activities, milestones and deliverables produced by a project. 
(4) Both (2) and (3).

 46. In the case of parallelization, Amdahl's law states that if P is the proportion of a program that can be made parallel and (1PP) is the proportion that cannot be parallelized, then the maximum speed-up that can be achieved by using N processors is : 
(1) 1/(1-P) + N.P  (2) 1/ (N - 1)P + P    (3) 1/(1 - P) +P/ N       (4) 1/ P + (1-P)/N 

47. Which of the following statements is incorrect for Parallel Virtual Machine (PVM) ? 
(1) The PVM communication model provides asynchronous blocking send, asynchronous blocking receive, and non-blocking receive function. 
(2) Message buffers are allocated dynamically. 
(3) The PVM communication model assumes that any task can send a message to any other PVM task and that there is no limit to the size or number of such messages. 
(4) In PVM model, the message order is not preserved. 

 48. Which of the following algorithms sort n integers, having the range 0 to (n2 -1), in ascending order in O(n) time? 
(1) Selection sort 
 (2) Bubble sort
(3) Radix sort
(4) Insertion sort 

49. Which of the following statements is FALSE about weak entity set ? 
(1) Weak entities can be deleted automatically when their strong entity is deleted. 
(2) Weak entity set avoids the data duplication and consequent possible inconsistencies caused by duplicating the key of the strong entity. 
(3) A weak entity set has no primary keys unless attributes of the strong entity set on which it depends are included. 
(4) Tuples in a weak entity set are not partitioned according to their relationship with tuples in a strong entity set. 

50. Which of the following is not valid with reference to Message Passing Interface (MPI) ? 
(1) MPI can run on any hardware platform. 
(2) The programming model is a distributed memory model. 
(3) All parallelism is implicit. 
(4) MPI - Comm - Size returns the total number of MPI processes in specified communication.

Monday, November 23, 2015

UGC NET Solved Paper -I June 2015

UGC NET Solved Paper -I June 2015

1. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability ?
(1) Knowing (2) Understanding (3) Analysing (4) Evaluating

2. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching ?
(1) Teacher's knowledge
(2) Class room activities that encourage learning
(3) Socio-economic background of teachers and students
(4) Learning through experience

3. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct ?
(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.
(b) They help students learn better.
(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.
(d) They enhance rote learning.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

4. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include :
(a) Lecture
(b) Interactive lecture
(c) Group work
(d) Self study
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

5. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of :
(1) Making selections for a specific job
(2) Selecting candidates for a course
(3) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners
(4) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching

6. A good teacher is one who:
(1) gives useful information
(2) explains concepts and principles
(3) gives printed notes to students
(4) inspires students to learn

7. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct ?
(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem.
(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of principles can be done.
(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.
(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

8. A good thesis writing should involve :
(a) reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.
(b) careful checking of references.
(c) consistency in the way the thesis is written.
(d) a clear and well written abstract.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

9. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his :
(1) Fundamental Research (2) Applied Research
(3) Action Research (4) Evaluation Research

10. "Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test." This statement
indicates a :
(1) research hypothesis (2) null hypothesis
(3) directional hypothesis (4) statistical hypothesis

11. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other
situations ?
(1) Historical Research (2) Descriptive Research
(3) Experimental Research (4) Causal Comparative Research

12. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire ?
(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.
(b) Review of the current literature.
(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.
(d) Revision of the draft.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 13 to 18.
Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what makes us Human.
Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history, knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.
Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings : "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there are stories that indicate that all will be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being led by those who call themselves "rational optimists". They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups work in less selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the 'Practical Possibles', who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed. What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.
Answer the following questions :
13. Our knowledge is a collection of:
(1) all stories that we have heard during our life-time
(2) some stories that we remember
(3) a few stories that survive
(4) some important stories

14. Story telling is:
(1) an art    (2) a science    (3) in our genes     (4) the essence of what makes us human

15. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories ?
(1) We collectively choose to believe in
(2) Which are repeatedly narrated
(3) Designed to spread fear and tension
(4) Designed to make prophecy

16. Rational optimists :
(a) Look for opportunities.
(b) Are sensible and cheerful.
(c) Are selfishly driven.
Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 
(2) (a) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (b) and (c) only

17. Humans become less selfish when:
(1) they work in large groups
(2) they listen to frightening stories
(3) they listen to cheerful stories
(4) they work in solitude

18. 'Practical Possibles' are the ones who :
(1) follow Midway Path (2) are doom-mongers
(3) are self-centred (4) are cheerful and carefree

19. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following ?
(a) Attitude surveys
(b) Performance records
(c) Students attendance
(d) Selection of communication channel
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) 
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

20. Assertion (A) : Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.
Reason (R) : Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of information.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but, (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but, (R) is correct

21. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication ?
(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.
(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.
(c) Communication is a continuous process.
(d) Communication is a circular process.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

22. The term 'grapevine' is also known as :
(1) Downward communication
(2) Informal communication
(3) Upward communication
(4) Horizontal communication

23. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication ?
(1) Persuasive and convincing dialogue
(2) Participation of the audience
(3) One-way transfer of information

(4) Strategic use of grapevine
24. In communication, the language is :
(1) The verbal code (2) Intrapersonal
(3) The symbolic code (4) The non-verbal code

25. The next term in the series is:
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?
(1) 73 (2) 75 (3) 78 (4) 80

26. In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of HOTELS will be :

27. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight ?
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 15 (4) 30

28. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is
related to the girl as:
(1) Brother (2) Uncle (3) Nephew (4) Son

29. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students who have :
passed in all five subjects                           =  5583
passed in three subjects only                    =  1400
passed in two subjects only                       =  1200
passed in one subject only                         =  735
failed in English only                                  =  75
failed in Physics only                                 =  145
failed in Chemistry only                            =  140
failed in Mathematics only                       =   200
failed in Bio-science only                          =   157
The number of students passed in at least four subjects is :
(1) 6300 (2) 6900 (3) 7300 (4) 7900

30. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than his wife. After
3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The age of the person's wife after 5 years will
(1) 42 (2) 48 (3) 45 (4) 50

31. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the
(1) Inductive (2) Deductive (3) Demonstrative (4) Physiological

32. A deductive argument is invalid if:
(1) Its premises and conclusions are all false
(2) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false
(3) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true
(4) Its premises and conclusions are all true

33. Inductive reasoning is grounded on :
(1) Integrity of nature (2) Unity of nature
(3) Uniformity of nature
(4) Harmony of nature

34. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them :
Statements :
(a) All poets are philosophers.
(b) Some poets are philosophers.
(c) Some poets are not philosophers.
(d) No philosopher is a poet.
Codes :
(1) (a)and(b)
(2) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c) 
(4) (b) and (c)

35. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements ?
Select the code :
Statements :
(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.
(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.
(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.
(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.
Codes :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) 
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)

36. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition
is called:
(1) Stipulative
(2) Theoretical
(3) Lexical
(4) Persuasive
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Question numbers 37 to 42 are based on the tabulated data given below :
A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of them :
S.NoAge (in years)Salary (in Thousand rupees per month)S.noAge (in years)Salary (in Thousand rupees per month)

37. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary ?
(1) 35-40 years (2) 40 - 45 years (3) 45 - 50 years (4) 50 - 55 years

38. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30 - 35 years ?
(1) 20% (2) 25% (3) 30% (4) 35%

39. What is the average age of the employees ?
(1) 40.3 years (2) 38.6 years (3) 47.2 years (4) 45.3 years

40. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary >= 40,000 per month ?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 35% (4) 32%

41. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40 - 50 years ?
(1) 35 (2) 42.5 (3) 40.5 (4) 36.5

42. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of all the employees?
(1) 45% (2) 50% (3) 55% (4) 47%

43. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as :
(1) Protection (2) Detection (3) Encryption (4) Decryption

44. Which of the following is not an output device ?
(1) Printer (2) Speaker (3) Monitor (4) Keyboard

45. Which of the following represents one billion characters ?
(1) Kilobyte (2) Megabyte (3) Gigabyte (4) Terabyte

46. Which of the following is not open source software ?
(1) Internet explorer (2) Fedora Linux
(3) Open office (4) Apache HTTP server

47. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25 ?
(1) 10101 (2) 01101 (3) 11001 (4) 11011

48. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting ?
(1) Altavista (2) MAC (3) Microsoft Office (4) Google Talk

49. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum ?
(1) USA (2) European Union
(3) China (4) India

50. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:
(1) -3% (2) -6% (3) -10% (4) -15%

51. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will be approximately :
(1) ~8 (2) -16 (3) -32 (4) -64

52. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources ?
(1) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas
(2) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity
(3) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water
(4) Oil, forests and tides

53. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included ?
(1) Carbon monoxide (2) Fine particulate matter
(3) Ozone (4) Chlorofluorocarbons

54. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:
(1) Population, affluence per person, land available per person
(2) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources
(3) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover
(4) Population, forest cover and land available per person

55. The session of the parliament is summoned by :
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(4) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

56. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on :
(1) 21st April (2) 24th April (3) 21st June (4) 7th July

57. The South Asia University is situated in the city of :
(1) Colombo (2) Dhaka (3) New Delhi (4) Kathmandu

58. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims ?
(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education
(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning
(c) Capacity building of teachers
(d) Providing autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (d)

59. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:
(1) 8 percent (2) 12 percent (3) 19 percent (4) 23 percent

60. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was :
(1) 08 (2) 14 (3) 27 (4) 43