Tuesday, December 30, 2014

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II Dec 2014

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

Coming soon

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -III Dec 2014

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

 Coming Soon

UGC NET Solved Paper -I Dec 2014

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1.    CSS stands for
(A)    Cascading Style Sheets
(B)    Collecting Style Sheets
(C)    Comparative Style Sheets
(D)    Comprehensive Style Sheets

2.    MOOC stands for
(A)    Media Online Open Course
(B)    Massachusetts Open Online Course
(C)    Massive Open Online Course
(D)    Myrind Open Online Course

3.   Binary equivalent of decimal number 35 is
(A) 100011    (B) 110001
(C) 110101    (D) 101011

4.    gif. jpg, bmp, png are used as extensions for files which store
 (A)    audio data    (B)    image data    (C)    video data    (D)    text data

5.    Symbols A-F are used in which one of the following ?
(A)    Binary number system
(B)    Decimal number system
(C)    Hexadecimal number system
(D)    Octal number system

6.    Which one of the following is not a search engine ?
(A)   Google    (B)    Chrome
(C)    Yahoo    (D)    Bing

7.    In terms of total CO, emissions from a country, identify the correct sequence
(A)    U.S.A. > China > India > Russia
(B)    China > U.S.A. > India > Russia
(C)    China > U.S.A. > Russia > India
(D)    U.S.A. > China > Russia > India

8.    Match List - I and List - II and identify the correct code :
               List - I                            List-II
a.     World Health Day         i.    16th September
b.    World Population Day    ii.   1st   December
c.     World Ozone Day         iii.  1st  July
d.     World AIDS Day          iv.  7th April
          a    b       c       d       
(A)    i    ii       iii       iv       
(B)    iv    iii        i        ii       
(C)    ii    iii       iv        i       
(D)   iii    iv       ii        i

9.    Which  of the  anthropogenic  activity  accounts  for  more than  ~2/3rd  of global  water consumption ?
(A)    Agriculture
(B)    Hydropower generation
(C)    Industry
(D)    Domestic and Municipal usage

10.    One of the anthropogenic sources of gaseous pollutants chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in air is
(A)    Cement industry
(B)    Fertiliser industry
(C)    Foam industry
(D)    Pesticide industry 

11.    The maximum number of fake institutions / universities as identified by the UGC in the year 2014 are in the State / Union territory of
(A)    Bihar              (B)    Uttar Pradesh
(C)    Tamil Nadu    (D)    Delhi

12.    Which of the following institutions are empowered to confer or grant degrees under the UGC Act, 1956 ?
1.    A university established by an Act of Parliament.
2.    A university established by an Act of Legislature.
3.    A university / institution established by a linguistic minority.
4.    An institution which is a deemed to be university.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    1 and 2    (B)    1,2 and 3
(C)    1.2 and 4    (D)    1, 2, 3 and 4

13.    Which of the following are the tools of good governance ?
1.    Social Audit
2.    Separation of Powers
3.    Citizen's Charter
4.    Right to Information
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    1,3 and 4    (B)    2. 3 and 4
(C)    l and 4        (D)    1,2. 3 and 4

14.    The cyclone 'Hudhud' hit the coast of which State ?
(A)    Andhra Pradesh    (B)    Kamataka
(C)    Kerala                  (D)    Gujarat

15.    Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?
(A)    Clean air       (B)    Fresh water
(C)    Fertile soil     (D)    Salt

16.    Right to Privacy as a Fundamental Right is implied in
(A)    Right to Freedom
(B)    Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(C)    Right to Equality
(D)    Right against Exploitation

17.    Which  of the  following organizations  deals  with capacity building  Educational Planning ?
(A)    NCERT
(B)    UGC
(C)    NAAC
(D)    NUEPA

18.    Which of the following powers, the President has in relation to Lok Sabha ?
1.    Summoning
2.    Adjournment - sine die
3.    Prorogation
4.    Dissolution
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    1 and 4
(B)    1.2 and 3
(C)    1, 3 and 4
(D)    1,2, 3 and 4

19.    The interval between two sessions of parliament must not exceed
(A)    3 months
(B)    6 months 

(C)    4 months
(D)    100 days

20.    Maximum participation of students during teaching is possible through 
(A)    Lecture method    (B)    Demonstration method  (C)    Inductive method    (D)    Textbook method

21.    Diagnostic evaluation ascertains
(A)    Students performance at the beginning of instructions.
(B)    Learning progress and failures during instructions.
(C)    Degree of achievement of instructions at the end.
(D)    Causes and remedies of persistent learning problems during instructions.

22.    Instructional aids are used by the teacher to
(A)    glorify the class    (B)    attract the students
(C)    clarify the concepts    (D)    ensure discipline

23.    Attitude of the teacher that affects teaching pertains to
(A)    Affective domain    (B)    Cognitive domain
(C)    Connative domain    (D)    Psychomotor domain

24.    "Education is the manifestation of perfection already in man" was stated by
(A)    M.K.Gandhi              (B)    R.N. Tagore
(C)    Swami Vivekanand    (D)    Sri Aurobindo

25.    Which of the following is not a prescribed level of teaching ?
(A)    Memory    (B)    Understanding
(C)    Reflective    (D)   Differentiation

26.    The core elements of a dissertation are
(A)    Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations
(B)    Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions: Bibliography
(C)    Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis: References
(D)    Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology, Results; Discussion and Conclusion

27.    What is a Research Design ?
(A)    A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory.
(B)    The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods.
(C)    The style in which you present your research findings e.g. a graph.
(D)    A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data.

28.    'Sampling Cases' means
(A)    Sampling using a sampling frame
(B)    Identifying people who are suitable for research
(C)    Literally the researcher's briefcase
(D)    Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.

29.    The frequency distribution of a research data which is symmetrical in shape similar to a normal distribution but center peak is much higher, is
(A)    Skewed         (B)   Mesokurtic
(C)    Leptokurtic    (D)   Platykurtic 

30.    When planning to do as social research, it is better to
(A)    approach the topic with an open mind
(B)    do a pilot study before getting stuck into it
(C)    be familiar with literature on the topic
(D)    forget about theory because this is a very practical

31.    When academicians are called to deliver lecture or presentation to an audience on certain topics or a set of topics of educational nature, it is called
(A)   Training Program    (B)    Seminar
(C)    Workshop            (D)    Symposium

32.    Media is known as 
(A)    First Estate       (C)    Third Estate
(B)    Second Estate  (D)    Fourth Estate

33.    The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a large number of receivers simultaneously, is called
(A)    Group Communication
(B)    Mass Communication
(C)    Intrapersonal Communication
(D)    Interpersonal Communication

34.    A smart classroom is a teaching space which has
(i)     Smart portion with a touch panel control system. 

(ii)    PC/Laptop connection and DVD/VCR player. 
(iii)   Document camera and specialized software 
(iv)    Projector and screen Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)    (i) and (ii) only
(B)    (ii) and (iv) only
(C)    (i). (ii) and (iii) only
(D)    (i).(ii),(iii)and(iv)

35.    The term 'Yellow Journalism' refers to
(A)    sensational news about terrorism and violence
(B)    sensationalism and exaggeration to attract readers / viewers.
(C)    sensational news about arts and culture
(D)    sensational news prints in yellow paper.

36.    In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are really
(A)    Encoders    (B)    Decoders
(C)    Agitators    (D)    Propagators

37.    The next term in the series :
        AB, ED, IH, NM,  is       
    (A)    TS    (B)    ST
    (C)    TU    (D)   SU

38.    If STREAMERS is coded as UVTGALDQR, then KNOWLEDGE will be coded as 


39.    A is brother of B. B is the brother of C. C is the husband of D. E is the father of A. D is related to E as
(A)    Daughter          (B)    Daughter-in-law
(C)    Sister-in-law    (D)    Sister

40.    Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from the numbers, the ratio become 12 : 23. The numbers are
(A)    30,50    (B)    36,60
(C)    33,55    (D)    42,70

41.    The mean of the ages of father and his son is 27 years. After 18 years, father will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages are
(A)    42.12    (B)    40,14
(C)    30,24    (D)    36.18

42.    Digital Empowerment means
(i)     Universal digit literacy
(ii)    Universal access to all digital resources.
(iii)   Collaborative digital platform for participative governance.
(iv)   Probability of all entitlements for individuals through cloud.

    Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
(A)   (i) and (ii) only           (B)    (ii) and (iii) only
(C)   (i), (ii) and (iii) only    (D)    (i), (ii). (iii) and (iv)

43.    The next term in the series :
2,7,28.63, 126.    is
(A)    215    (B)    245
(C)    276    (D)    296

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 44 to 48 : 
The literary distaste for politics, however, seems to be focused not so much on the largely murky practice of politics in itself as a subject of literary representation but rather more on how it is often depicted in literature, i.e., on the very politics of such representation. A political novel often turns out to be not merely a novel about politics but a novel with a politics of its own, for it seeks not merely to show us how things are but has fairly definite ideas about how things should be, and precisely what one should think and do in order to make things move in that desired direction. In short, it seeks to convert and enlist the reader to a particular cause or ideology; it often is (in an only too familiar phrase) not literature but propaganda. This is said violate the very spirit of literature which is to broaden our understanding of the world and to range of our sympathies rather than to narrow them down through partisan commitment. As John Keats said, 'We hate poetry that has a palpable design upon us'.
Another reason why politics does not seem amenable to the highest kind of literary representation seems to arise from the fact that politics by its very nature is constituted of ideas and ideologies. If political situations do not lend themselves to happy literary treatment, political ideas present perhaps an even greater problem in this regard. Literature, it is argued, is about human experiences rather than about intellectual abstractions; it deals in what is called the 'felt reality' of human flesh and blood, and in sap and savour (rasa) rather than in arid and lifeless ideas. In an extensive discussion of the matter in her book Ideas and the Novel the American novelist Mary McCarthy observed that 'ideas are still today felt to be unsightly in the novel though that was not so in 'former days', i.e.. in the 18th and 19n centuries. Her formulation of the precise nature of the incompatibility between ideas on the one hand and the novel on t other betrays perhaps a divided conscience in the matter and a sense of dilemma shared by many writers and readers : 'An idea cannot have loose ends, but a novel, I almost think, needs them Nevertheless, there is enough in common for the novelists to fee!... the attraction of ideas while taking up arms against them - most often with weapons of mockery.'

44.    The constructs of politics by its nature is
(A)    Prevalent political situation    (B)    Ideas and Ideologies
(C)   Political propaganda    (D)   Understanding of Iranian nature

45.    Literature deals with
(A)    Human experiences in politics        (B)    Intellectual abstractions
(C)    Dry and empty ideas    (D)    Felt reality of human life

46.    The observation of the novelist. Mary McCarthy reveals
(A)    unseen felt ideas of today in the novel
(B)    dichotomy of conscience on political ideas and novels
(C)    compatibility between idea and novel
(D)    endless ideas and novels

47.    According to the passage, a political novel often turns out to be a
(A)    Literary distaste for politics    (B)    Literary representation of politics
(C)    Novel with its own politics    (D)    Depiction of murky practice of politics

48.    A political novel reveals
(A)    Reality of the things                        (B)    Writer's perception
(C)    Particular ideology of the readers   (D)    The spirit of literature

49.    Warrior is related to sword, carpenter is related to saw. farmer is related to plough. In the same way, the author is related to 

(A)    Book    (B)    Fame (C)    Reader    (D)    Pen

50.    Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B and C over-lapping each other. The circle A represents the class of honest people, the circle B represents the class of sincere people and circle C represents the class of politicians, p, q. r, s. U. X. Y represent different regions. Select the code that represents the region indicating the class of honest politicians who are not sincere.
Codes :
(A)    X    (B)    q
(C)    p    (D)    s

51.    "A man ought no more to value himself for being wiser than a woman if he owes his advantage to a better education, than he ought to boast of his courage for beating a man when his hands were tied."
The above passage is an instance of
(A)    Deductive argument    (B)    Hypothetical argument
(C)    Analogical argument    (D)    Factual argument

52.    By which of the following proposition, the proposition wise men are hardly afraid death is contradicted ?
(A)    Some wise men are afraid of death.
(B)    All wise men are afraid of death.
(C)    No wise men is afraid of death.
(D)    Some wise men are not afraid of death.

53.    When in a group of propositions, one proposition is claimed to follow from the others, the group of propositions is called
(A)    An argument      (B)    A valid argument
(C)    An explanation    (D)    An invalid argument

54.    Namita and Samita are brilliant and studious. Anita and Karabi are obedient and irregular Babita and Namita are irregular but brilliant. Samita and Kabita are regular and obedient. Who among them is/are brilliant, obedient, regular and studious ?
(A) Samita alone    (B) Namita and Samita
(C) Kabita alone    (D) Anita alone

For a country CO, emissions (million metric tons) from various sectors are given in the following table. Answer the questions (55 to 60) based on the data given :
 55.    By what percentage (%), the total emissions of CO, have increased from 2005 to 2009 ?
(A)    -89.32%    (B)    -57.62%
(C)    -40.32%    (D)    -113.12%

56.    What is the average annual growth rate of CO, emissions in power sector ?
(A)    -12.57%    (B)    -16.87%
(C)    -30.81%    (D)    -50.25%

57.    What is the percentage contribution of power sector to total CO, emissions in the year 2008 ?
(A)    -30.82%    (B)    -41.18%
(C)    -51.38%    (D)    -60.25%

58.    In which year,    the contribution (%) of industry to total  sectoral CO, emissions was minimum ?
(A)    2005    (B) 2006
(C)    2007    (D) 2009

59.    What is the percentage (%) growth    of CO, emissions from power sector during 2005 to 2009?
(A)    60    (B)    50
(C)    40    (D)    80

60.    Which sector has recorded maximum growth in CO, emissions during 2005 to 2009 ?
(A)    Power    (B)    Industry
(C)    Commercial    (D)    Agriculture

Sunday, July 20, 2014

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -III June 2014

UGC NET June 2014 Solved question paper -III

 Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

 1. Beam-penetration and shadow-mask are the two basic techniques for producing color displays with a CRT. Which of the following is not true ?
I. The beam-penetration is used with random scan monitors.
II. Shadow-mask is used in rasterscan systems.
III. Beam-penetration method is better than shadow-mask method.
IV. Shadow-mask method is better than beam-penetration method.
(A) I and II               (B) II and III
(C) III only               (D) IV only

2. Line caps are used for adjusting the shape of the line ends to give them a better appearance. Various kinds of line caps used are
(A) Butt cap and sharp cap
(B) Butt cap and round cap
(C) Butt cap, sharp cap and round cap
(D) Butt cap, round cap and projecting square cap

3. Given below are certain output primitives and their associated attributes. Match each primitive with its corresponding attributes :
            List – I                             List – II
a. Line                                  i. Type, Size, Color
b. Fill Area                           ii. Color, Size, Font
c. Text                                 iii. Style, Color, Pattern
d. Marker                           iv. Type, Width, Color
Codes :
      a  b   c   d
(A) i   ii   iii   iv
(B) ii   i   iii   iv
(C) iv  iii  ii    i
(D) iii  i   iv   ii

4. Consider a window bounded by the lines : x = 0; y= 0; x = 5 and y = 3. The line segment joining (–1, 0) and (4, 5), if clipped against this window will connect the points
(A) (0, 1) and (2, 3)
(B) (0, 1) and (3, 3)
(C) (0, 1) and (4, 3)
(D) (0, 1) and (3, 2)

5. Which of the following color models are defined with three primary colors ?
(A) RGB and HSV color models
(B) CMY and HSV color models
(C) HSV and HLS color models
(D) RGB and CMY color models

6. In a digital transmission, the receiver clock is 0.1 percent faster than the sender clock. How many extra bits per second does the receiver receive if the data rate is 1 Mbps ?
(A) 10 bps            (B) 100 bps
(C) 1000 bps        (D) 10000 bps

7. Given U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
A = {(3, 0.7), (5, 1), (6, 0.8)}
then ~A will be : (where ~ —>  complement)
(A) {(4, 0.7), (2, 1), (1, 0.8)}
(B) {(4, 0.3), (5, 0), (6, 0.2) }
(C) {(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 0.3), (4, 1), (6, 0.2), (7, 1)}
(D) {(3, 0.3), (6.0.2)}

8. Consider a fuzzy set old as defined below
Old = {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2), (40, 0.4), (50, 0.6), (60, 0.8), (70, 1), (80, 1)}
Then the alpha-cut for alpha = 0.4 for the set old will be
(A) {(40, 0.4)}
(B) {50, 60, 70, 80}
(C) {(20, 0.1), (30, 0.2)}
(D) {(20, 0), (30, 0), (40, 1), (50, 1), (60, 1), (70, 1), (80, 1)}

9. Perceptron learning, Delta learning and LMS learning are learning methods which falls under the category of
(A) Error correction learning – learning with a teacher
(B) Reinforcement learning – learning with a critic
(C) Hebbian learning
(D) Competitive learning – learning without a teacher

10. Code blocks allow many algorithms to be implemented with the following parameters :
(A) clarity, elegance, performance
(B) clarity, elegance, efficiency
(C) elegance, performance, execution
(D) execution, clarity, performance

11. Match the following with respect to the jump statements :
List – I                            List – II
a. return                    i. The conditional test and increment portions
b. goto                     ii. A value associated with it
c. break                  iii. Requires a label for operation
d. continue              iv. An exit from only the innermost loop
Codes :
        a   b  c   d
(A)  ii   iii   iv   i
(B)  iii   iv   i   ii
(C)  iv   iii   ii   i
(D)  iv   iii   i   ii

12. The control string in C++ consists of three important classifications of characters
(A) Escape sequence characters, Format specifiers and Whitespace characters
(B) Special characters, White-space characters and Non-white space characters
(C) Format specifiers, White-space characters and Non-white space characters
(D) Special characters, White-space characters and Format specifiers

13. Match the following with respect to I/O classes in object oriented programming :
List – I                List – II
a. fopen()         i. returns end of file
b. fclose()        ii. return for any problem report
c. ferror()        iii. returns 0
d. feof()          iv. returns a file pointer
Codes :
       a b   c   d
(A) iv   i   ii   iii
(B) iii   i   iv   ii
(C) ii   iii   iv   i
(D) iv   iii   i   ii

14. Which one of the following describes the syntax of prolog program ?
I. Rules and facts are terminated by full stop (.)
II. Rules and facts are terminated by semicolon (;)
III. Variables names must start with upper case alphabets.
IV. Variables names must start with lower case alphabets.
Codes :
(A) I, II      (B) III, IV
(C) I, III     (D) II, IV

15. Let L be any language. Define even (W) as the strings obtained by extracting from W the letters in the even-numbered positions and even(L) = {even (W) | W Î L}. We define another language Chop (L) by removing the two leftmost symbols of every string in L given by Chop(L) = {W | n W Î L, with | n | = 2}. 

If L is regular language then
(A) even(L) is regular and Chop(L) is not regular.
(B) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are regular.
(C) even(L) is not regular and Chop(L) is regular.
(D) Both even(L) and Chop(L) are not regular.

16. Software testing is
(A) the process of establishing that errors are not present.
(B) the process of establishing confidence that a program does what it is supposed to do.
(C) the process of executing a program to show that it is working as per specifications.
(D) the process of executing a program with the intent of finding errors.

17. Assume that a program will experience 200 failures in infinite time. It has now experienced 100 failures. The initial failure intensity was 20 failures/CPU hr. Then the current failure intensity will be
(A) 5 failures/CPU hr
(B) 10 failures/CPU hr.
(C) 20 failures/CPU hr.
(D) 40 failures/CPU hr.

18. Consider a project with the following functional units :
Number of user inputs = 50
Number of user outputs = 40
Number of user enquiries = 35
Number of user files = 06
Number of external interfaces = 04
Assuming all complexity adjustment factors and weighing factors as average, the function points for the project will be
(A) 135        (B) 722
(C) 675        (D) 672

19. Match the following :
List – I                                  List – II
a. Correctness           i. The extent to which a software tolerates the unexpected problems
b. Accuracy              ii. The extent to which a software  meets its specifications
c. Robustness           iii. The extent to which a software has specified functions
d. Completeness       iv. Meeting specifications with precision
Codes :
      a   b  c   d
(A) ii   iv   i   iii
(B) i   ii   iii   iv
(C) ii   i   iv   iii
(D) iv   ii   i   iii

20. Which one of the following is not a definition of error ?
(A) It refers to the discrepancy between a computed, observed or measured value and the true, specified or theoretically correct value.
(B) It refers to the actual output of  a software and the correct output.
(C) It refers to a condition that causes a system to fail.
(D) It refers to human action that results in software containing a defect or fault.

21. Which one of the following is not a key process area in CMM level 5 ?
(A) Defect prevention
(B) Process change management
(C) Software product engineering
(D) Technology change management

22. Consider the following relational schemas for a library database :
Book (Title, Author, Catalog_no, Publisher, Year, Price)
Collection(Title, Author, Catalog_no)
with the following functional dependencies :
I. Title, Author --> Catalog_no
II. Catalog_no --> Title, Author,Publisher, Year
III. Publisher, Title, Year --> Price

Assume (Author, Title) is the key for both schemas.
Which one of the following is true ?
(A) Both Book and Collection are in BCNF.
(B) Both Book and Collection are in 3NF.
(C) Book is in 2NF and Collection in 3NF.
(D) Both Book and Collection are in 2NF.

23. Specialization Lattice stands for
(A) An entity type can participate as a subclass in only one specialization.
(B) An entity type can participate as a subclass in more than one specialization.
(C) An entity type that can participate in one specialization.
(D) An entity type that can participate in one generalization.

24. Match the following :
     List – I                                                 List – II
a. Timeout ordering protocol            i. Wait for graph
b. Deadlock prevention                   ii. Roll back
c. Deadlock detection                     iii. Wait-die scheme
d. Deadlock recovery                     iv. Thomas Write Rule
Codes :
       a  b  c   d
(A) iv  iii   i   ii
(B) iii   ii  iv   i
(C) ii   i   iv   iii
(D) iii   i  iv   iii

25. Consider the schema R = {S, T, U, V} and 

the dependencies S —> T, T —> U, U —> V and V —> S If R = (R1 and R2) be a decomposition such that R1 R2 = Φ then the decomposition is
(A) not in 2NF
(B) in 2NF but not in 3NF
(C) in 3NF but not in 2NF
(D) in both 2NF and 3NF

26. Which one of the following is not a Client-Server application ?
(A) Internet chat            (B) Web browser
(C) E-mail                     (D) Ping

27. Which of the following concurrency protocol ensures both conflict serializability and freedom from deadlock :
I. 2-phase locking
II. Time phase ordering
(A) Both I & II
(B) II only
(C) I only
(D) Neither I nor II

28. Match the following :
       List – I                                         List – II
a. Expert systems                            i. Pragmatics
b. Planning                                      ii. Resolution
c. Prolog                                         iii. Means-end analysis
d. Natural language processing        iv. Explanation facility
Codes :
      a   b  c d
(A) iii   iv  i  ii
(B) iii   iv  ii  i
(C) i    ii   iii  iv
(D) iv  iii  ii   i

29. STRIPS addresses the problem of efficiently representing and implementation of a planner. It is not related to which one of the following ?
(D) None of these

30. Slots and facets are used in
(A) Semantic Networks
(B) Frames
(C) Rules
(D) All of these

31. Consider f(N) = g(N) + h(N) Where function g is a measure of the cost of getting from the start node to the current node N and h is an estimate of additional cost of getting from the current node N to the goal node. Then f(N) = h(N) is used in which one of the following algorithms ?
(A) A* algorithm
(B) AO* algorithm
(C) Greedy best first search algorithm
(D) Iterative A* algorithm

32. ________predicate calculus allows quantified variables to refer to objects in the domain of discourse and not to predicates or functions.
(A) Zero-order            (B) First-order
(C) Second-order        (D) High-order

33. ________ is used in game trees to reduce the number of branches of the search tree to be traversed without affecting the solution.
(A) Best first search
(B) Goal stack planning
(C) Alpha-beta pruning procedure
(D) Min-max search

34. Consider a uniprocessor system where new processes arrive at an average of five processes per minute and each process needs an average of 6 seconds of service time. What will be the CPU utilization ?
(A) 80 %        (B) 50 %
(C) 60 %        (D) 30 %

35. Consider a program that consists of 8 pages (from 0 to 7) and we have 4 page frames in the physical memory for the pages. The page reference string is :
1 2 3 2 5 6 3 4 6 3 7 3 1 5 3 6 3 4 2 4 3 4 5 1
The number of page faults in LRU and optimal page replacement algorithms are respectively (without including initial page faults to fill available page frames with pages) :
(A) 9 and 6         (B) 10 and 7
(C) 9 and 7         (D) 10 and 6

36. Which of the following statements is not true about disk-arm scheduling algorithms ?
(A) SSTF (shortest seek time first) algorithm increases performance of FCFS.
(B) The number of requests for disk service are not influenced by file allocation method.
(C) Caching the directories and index blocks in main memory can also help in reducing disk arm movements.
(D) SCAN and C-SCAN  algorithms are less likely to have a starvation problem.

37. _________ maintains the list of free disk blocks in the Unix file system.
(A) I-node
(B) Boot block
(C) Super block
(D) File allocation table

38. A part of Windows 2000 operating system that is not portable is
(A) Device Management
(B) Virtual Memory Management
(C) Processor Management
(D) User Interface

39. Match the following with reference to Unix shell scripts :
List – I                           List – II
a. $?                 i. File name of the current script
b. $#                ii. List of arguments
c. $0                iii. The number of arguments
d. $*                iv. Exit status of last command
Codes :
      a  b  c d
(A) iii  ii  i  iv
(B) ii  iii  i  iv
(C) iv iii  i  ii
(D) i   iii  i  iv

40. The advantage of _______ is that it can reference memory without paying the price of having a full memory address in the instruction.
(A) Direct addressing
(B) Indexed addressing
(C) Register addressing
(D) Register Indirect addressing

41. The reverse polish notation equivalent to the infix expression  ((A + B) * C + D)/(E + F + G)
(A) A B + C * D + EF + G + /
(B) A B + C D * + E F + G + /
(C) A B + C * D + E F G + +/
(D) A B + C * D + E + F G + /

42. The output of a sequential circuit depends on
(A) present input only
(B) past input only
(C) both present and past input
(D) past output only

43. A byte addressable computer has a memory capacity of 2m Kbytes and can perform 2n operations. An instruction involving 3 operands and one operator needs a maximum of
(A) 3m bits
(B) m + n bits
(C) 3m + n bits
(D) 3m + n + 30 bits

44. Which of the following flip-flops is free from race condition ?
(A) T flip-flop
(B) SR flip-flop
(C) Master-slave JK flip-flop
(D) None of the above

45. One of the main features that distinguish microprocessor from micro-computers is
(A) words are usually larger in microprocessors.
(B) words are shorter in microprocessors.
(C) microprocessor does not contain I/O devices.
(D) None of the above.

46. The output generated by the LINUX command :
$ seq 1 2 10 will be
(A) 1 2 10
(B) 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
(C) 1 3 5 7 9
(D) 1 5 10

47. All the classes necessary for windows programming are available in the module :
(A) win.txt      (B) win.main
(C) win.std     (D) MFC

48. Windows 32 API supports
(A) 16-bit Windows
(B) 32-bit Windows
(C) 64-bit Windows
(D) All of the above

49. Superficially the term “objectoriented”, means that, we organize software as a
(A) collection of continuous objects that incorporates both data structure and behaviour.
(B) collection of discrete objects that incorporates both discrete structure and behaviour.
(C) collection of discrete objects that incorporates both data structure and behaviour.
(D) collection of objects that incorporates both discrete data structure and behaviour.

50. The “part-whole”, or “a-part-of”, relationship in which objects representing the components of something associated with an object representing the entire assembly is called as
(A) Association
(B) Aggregation
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Generalisation

51. The pure object oriented programming language with extensive metadata available and modifiable at run time is
(A) Small talk      (B) C++
(C) Java             (D) Eiffel

52. Match the following interfaces of Java. Servlet package :
   List – I                              List – II
a. Servlet Config           i. Enables Servlets to log events
b. Servlet Context         ii. Read data from a client
c. Servlet Request        iii. Write data to a client
d. Servlet Response      iv. To get initialization parameters
Codes :
       a   b  c d
(A) iii   iv  ii  i
(B) iii   ii  iv  i
(C) ii   iii  iv  i
(D) iv   i  ii   iii

53. The syntax of capturing events method for document object is
(A) CaptureEvents()
(B) CaptureEvents(Orgs eventType)
(C) CaptureEvents(eventType)
(D) CaptureEvents(eventVal)

54. Linking to another place in the same or another webpage require two A (Anchor) tags, the first with the ________ attribute and the second with the _________ attribute.

55. Given an image of size 1024 × 1024 pixels in which intensity of each pixel is an 8-bit quality. It requires _______ of storage space if the image is not compressed.
(A) one Terabyte
(B) one Megabyte
(C) 8 Megabytes
(D) 8 Terabytes

56. Match the following cryptographic algorithms with their design issues :
     List – I              List – II
a. DES               i. Message Digest
b. AES              ii. Public Key
c. RSA             iii. 56-bit key
d. SHA-1         iv. 128-bit key
Codes :
      a  b  c  d
(A) ii  i   iv  iii
(B) iii  i   iv  ii
(C) iii  iv  ii  i
(D) iv  i   ii  iii

57. Consider a code with five valid code words of length ten :
0000000000, 0000011111, 1111100000, 1110000011, 1111111111
Hamming distance of the code is
(A) 5    (B) 10
(C) 8    (D) 9

58. Which of the following special cases does not require reformulation of the problem in order to obtain a solution ?
(A) Alternate optimality
(B) Infeasibility
(C) Unboundedness
(D) All of the above

59. The given maximization assignment problem can be converted into a minimization problem by
(A) subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.
(B) subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table.
(C) adding each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column.
(D) adding maximum value of the table to each entry in the table.

60. The initial basic feasible solution of the following transportation problem :


 Ans: A
61. Given the following equalities :
E1 : nK+є  + nK  lg n = Ө(nK+є ) for all  fixed K and ∈, K ≥ 0 and ∈ > 0.
E2 : n32+ 6n23n = O(n32n)
 Which of the following is true ?
E1 is correct and E2 is correct.
E1 is correct and E2 is not correct.
E1 is not correct and E2 is correct.
E1 is not correct and E2 is not correct.

62. Consider the fractional knapsack instance n = 4, (p1, p2, p3, p4) = (10, 10, 12, 18), (w1, w2, w3, w4) = (2, 4, 6, 9) and M = 15. The maximum profit is given by (Assume p and w denotes profit and weight of objects respectively)
(A) 40        (B) 38
(C) 32        (D) 30

63. The solution of the recurrence relation of T(n) = 3T ( floor (n/4)) + n  is
(A) O(
n2)          (B) O(nlg n)
(C) O(n)            (D) O(l g n)

64. If h is chosen from a universal collection of hash functions and is used to hash n keys into a table of size m, where n m, the expected number of collisions involving a particular key K is
(A) less than 1
(B) less than lg n
(C) greater than 1
(D) greater than lg n

65. Given the following statements :
S1 : The subgraph-isomorphism problem takes two graphs G1 and G2 and asks whether G1 is a subgraph of G2.
S2 : The set-partition problem takes as input a set S of numbers and asks whether the numbers can be partitioned into two sets A and  A'  = S – A such that 

              ∑x    =  ∑x 
           x A     x A'
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is NP problem and S2 is P problem.
(B) S1 is NP problem and S2 is NP problem.
(C) S1 is P problem and S2 is P problem.
(D) S1 is P problem and S2 is NP problem.

66. Suppose that the splits at every level of quicksort are in the proportion (1 –
α ) to a, where 0 < α ½ is a constant. The minimum depth of a leaf in the recursion tree is approximately given by
(A) – lgn / lg(1 –
(B) – lg (1 –
α) / lgn
(C) – lgn / lg
(D) – lg
α / lgn

67. Ten signals, each requiring 3000 Hz, are multiplexed on to a single channel using FDM. How much minimum bandwidth is required for the multiplexed channel ? Assume that the guard bands are 300 Hz wide.
(A) 30,000
(B) 32,700
(C) 33,000
(D) None of the above

68. A terminal multiplexer has six 1200 bps terminals and ‘n’ 300 bps terminals connected to it. If the outgoing line is 9600 bps, what is the value of n ?
(A) 4         (B) 8
(C) 16       (D) 28

69. Which of the following is used in the options field of IPv4 ?
(A) Strict source routing
(B) Loose source routing
(C) time stamp
(D) All of the above

70. Which layers of the OSI reference model are host-to-host layers ?
(A) Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
(B) Network, Transport, Session, Presentation
(C) Data-link, Network, Transport, Session
(D) Physical, Data-link, Network, Transport

71. A network on the Internet has a subnet mask of What is the maximum number of hosts it can handle ?
(A) 1024          (B) 2048
(C) 4096          (D) 8192

72. Four bits are used for packed sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size ?
(A) 4         (B) 8
(C) 15       (D) 16

73. Given the following two grammars :
G1 : S —> AB | aaB
—> a | Aa
—> b
G2 : S
—> a S b S | b S a S | λ 
Which statement is correct ?
(A) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is unambiguous.
(B) G1 is unambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.
(C) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is unambiguous.
(D) G1 is ambiguous and G2 is ambiguous.

74. Match the following :
List – I List – II
a. Chomsky Normal form i. S
—> b S S | a S | c
b. Greibach Normal form ii. S
—> a S b | ab
c. S-grammar iii. S
—> AS | a A —> SA | b
d. LL grammar iv. S
—> a B S B B —> b
Codes :
       a    b  c  d
(A) iv   iii   i   ii
(B) iv   iii   ii   i
(C) iii   iv   i   ii
(D) iii   iv   ii   i

75. Given the following two languages :
L1 = {
anbn | n 1} {a}
L2 = {w C
wR | w {a, b}*}
Which statement is correct ?
(A) Both L1 and L2 are not deterministic.
(B) L1 is not deterministic and L2 is deterministic.
(C) L1 is deterministic and L2 is not deterministic.
(D) Both L1 and L2 are deterministic.

Tuesday, July 15, 2014

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II June 2014

UGC NET June 2014 Solved question paper -II

1.      Infrared signals can be used for short range  communication  in  a  closed area using propagation.
(A)   ground            (B)    sky
(C)    line of sight    (D)    space

2.    A  bridge  has  access  to address in the same network.
(A)   Physical    (B)    Network
(C)    Datalink    (D)   Application

3.     The minimum frame length for 10 Mbps Ethernet is _____  bytes. and maximum is____ bytes   
(A)   64 & 128          (B) 128 & 1518
(C)    1518 & 3036   (D) 64 & 1518 

4.    The bit rate of a signal is 3000 bps. If each signal unit carries 6 bits, the baud rate of the signal is    .
(A)    500 baud/sec
(B)    1000 baud/sec
(C)    3000 baud/sec
(D)    18000 baud/sec.

5.    Match the following:
           List-I                                        List - II
a.    Physical layer           i    Allow resources to  network access
b.    Datalink layer          ii    Move packets from one destination to other
c.    Network layer         iii.   Process to process message delivery   
d.    Transport layer        iv.   Transmission of bit stream
e.    Application Layer    v.    Formation of frames

          a    b    c   d    e
(A)    iv    v    ii    iii    i
(B)    v     iv    i    ii    iii
(C)    i      iii    ii   v    iv   
(D)    i      ii    iv   iii    v

6.    A grammar G is LL(1) if and only if the following conditions hold for two distinct productions A
α | β
I.    First (
α) ∩ First (β) ≠ {a} where a is some terminal symbol of the grammar.
II.   First (
α) ∩ First (β) λ
III.  First (α) ∩ Follow (A) = Φ if λ ∈ First (P)
(A)   I and II           (B)   I and III
(C)   II and III        (D)   I, II and III

7.    Which of the following suffices to convert an arbitrary CFG to an LL(1) grammar ?
(A)    Removing left recursion alone
(B)    Removing the grammar alone
(C)    Removing left recursion and factoring the grammar
(D)    None of the above

8.    A shift reduce parser suffers from
(A)    shift reduce conflict only
(B)    reduce reduce conflict only
(C)    both shift reduce conflict and reduce reduce conflict
(D)    shift handle and reduce handle conflicts

9.    The   context   free   grammar, for  the language L = {anbmck | k = |n - m|, n
≥0, m≥0,k≥0} is
(A)    S
S1S3, S1 aS1c | S2 | λ
         S2 aS2b|λ., S3 aS3b| S4 | λ
         S4 bS4c|λ 
(B)    S S1S3, S1 aS1S2c | λ
         S2 aS2b|λ, S3 aS3b| S4 |λ
         S4 bS4c|λ 
(C)    S S1|S2, S, aS1S2c | λ
         S2 aS2b | λ, S3 aS3b | S4 |λ
         S4 bS4c|λ
 (D)    S → S1 | S3, S1 → aS1c|S2 | λ, 
         S2 → aS2b | λ, S3 → a S3b| S4 | λ, 
         S4 → bS4c |λ

10.    The regular grammar for the language L = {w|n
a(w) and nb(w) are both even,
{a, b}*} is given by : (Assume, p, q, r and s are states)
(A)    p
aq | br | λ, q bs | ap 
         r as | bp, s ar | bq,        p and s are initial and final states.
(B)    p
aq | br, q bs | ap 
         r as | bp, s ar | bq,        p and s are initial and final states.
(C)    p
→ aq | br | λ, q → bs | ap 
         r → as | bp, s → ar | bq         p is both initial and final states.
(D)    p
aq | br, q bs | ap 
         r as | bp, s ar | bq         p is both initial and final states.

11.    KPA in CMM stands for
(A)    Key Process Area
(B)    Key Product Area
(C)    Key Principal Area
(D)    Key Performance Area

12.    Which one of the following is not a risk management technique for managing the risk due to unrealistic schedules and budgets ?
(A)    Detailed multi source cost and schedule estimation.
(B)    Design cost
(C)    Incremental development
(D)    Information hiding

13.    ________of a system is the structure or structures of the system which comprise software elements, the externally visible properties of these elements and the relationship amongst them.
(A)    Software construction
(B)    Software evolution
(C)    Software architecture
(D)    Software reuse

14.    In function point analysis, the number of complexity adjustment factors is
(A)    10    (B)    12
(C)    14    (D)   20

15.    Regression testing is primarily related to
(A)    Functional testing
(B)    Development testing
(C)    Data flow testing
(D)    Maintenance testing

16.    How many different truth tables of the compound propositions are there that involve the propositions p & q ?
(A)   2     (B)    4
(C)    8    (D)    16

17.    A Boolean function F is called self- dual if and only if
X1, X2, ... .Xn) = F(X1', X2',......Xn')
How    many    Boolean   functions   of degree n are self-dual ?
2n         (B)    (2)2n 
(C)   (2)n2      (D)     (2)2n-1

18.    Which of the following statement(s) is (are) not correct ?
i.      The 2' s complement of 0 is 0.
ii.     In 2's complement, the left most bit cannot be used to express a quantity.
iii.     For an n-bit word (2's complement) which includes the sign bit, there are 
  2n-1 positive integers, 2n+1   
        negative integers and one 0 for a total of 2n unique states.
iv.     In 2's complement the significant information is contained in the 1's of positive numbers and 0's of 

        the negative numbers.
(A)   i & iv         (B)    i & ii
(C)   iii               (D)    iv

19.    The notation
∃!xP(x) denotes the proposition "there exists a unique x such that P(x) is true".
         Give the truth values of the following statements :
∃!xP(x) ∃xP(x)
        II.    ∃!x ¬P(x) ¬∀xP(x) 
(A)    Both I & II are true.
(B)    Both 1 & H are false.
(C)    I - false, II - true
(D)    I - true, II - false

20.    Give a compound proposition involving propositions p, q and r that is true when exactly two of p, q and r are true and is false otherwise.
(A)    (p
∨q∧¬ r) ∧ (p∧¬q∧ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(B)    (p∧q∧¬ r) (p∨q∧¬ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(C)   (p∧q∧¬ r) (p∧¬q∧ r) ∧  (¬p∧q∧ r)
(D)   (p∧q∧¬ r) ∨ (p∧¬q∧ r) ∨ (¬p∧q∧ r)

21.    Consider the graph given below as

Ans : C

22. The upper bound and lower bound for the number of leaves in a B-tree of degree K with height h is given by:
(A)    K
h    and 2⌈K/2⌉h-1
(B)    K*h  and 2⌊K/2h-1 
(C)    Kh    and 2⌊K/2h-1
 (D)   K*h  and 2⌈K/2h-1

23.    Consider a complete bipartite graph
Km,n  For  which values of m and n does this, complete graph have a Hamilton circuit
(A)   m = 3. n = 2    (B)    m = 2, n = 3
(C)    m = n
≥ 2       (D)   m = n 3

24.    Big-0 estimates for the factorial function and the logarithm of the factorial function i.e. n! and log n! is given by
(A)    0(n!)andO(nlogn)
(B)    0(nn) and 0(n log n)
(C)    0(n!)andO(logn!)
(D)    0(n") and 0(Iog n!)

25.    How many cards must be chosen from a deck to guarantee that at least
i.       two aces of two kinds are chosen.
ii.      two aces are chosen.
iii.     two cards of the same kind are chosen.
iv.     two cards of two different kinds are chosen.
(A)    50.50.14,5   (B)    51.51.15,7 (C)    52.52.14,5    (D)    51,51,14,5

26.    Match the following with respect to the    mobile computing technologies :
        List-I        List-II
a.    GPRS     i.    An integrated digital radio standard
b.    GSM      ii.   3G wireless/Mobile technology
c.    UMTS    iii.  Nine different schemes for modulation and error correction
d.    EDGE     iv. An emerging wireless service that offers g mobile data
Codes :
         a    b    c    d   
(A)    iii   iv    ii    i
(B)    iv   i      ii    iii
(c)     ii    iii    iv   i
(d)     ii    i     iv   iii

27. Object Request Broker (ORB) is
I.    A software program that runs on the client as well as on the application server.
II.   A software program that runs on the client side only.
III.  A software program that runs on the application server, where most of the components reside.
(A)   I, II & III     (B)   I&II
(C)    II & III       (D)   I only

28.   A software agent is defined as
I.      A software developed for accomplishing a given task.
II.    A computer program which is capable of acting on behalf of the user in order to accomplish a given computational task.
III.    An   open   source   software   for accomplishing a given task.
(A)    I
(B)    II
(C)    III
(D)    All of the above

29.    Match the following :
       List -1                             List - II
a.   Classification            i.   Principal component analysis
b.   Clustering                ii. Branch and Bound
c.   Feature Extraction   iii. K-nearest neighbor
d.   Feature Selection    iv. K-means
          a      b      c    d
(A)    iii      iv      ii    i
(B)    iv      iii      i     ii
(C)    iii      iv      i     ii
(D)    iv      iii      ii    i

30.    SET, an open encryption and security specification model that is designed for protecting credit card transactions on the internet, stands for
(A)    Secure Electronic Transaction
(B)    Secular Enterprise for Transaction
(C)    Security Electronic Transmission
(D)    Secured Electronic Termination

31.    In a paged memory management algorithm, the hit ratio is 70%. If it takes 30 nanoseconds to search Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) and 100 nanoseconds (ns) to access memory, the effective memory access time is
(A)    91 ns      (B)    69 ns
(Cj    200 ns    (D)    160 ns

32.    Match the following
                  List -I                                  List - II
a.    Multilevel feedback queue             i. Time-slicing
b.    FCFS                                          ii. Criteria to move processes between queues
c.    Shortest process next                   iii. Batch processing
d.    Round robin  scheduling               iv. Exponential smoothening
         a    b    c    d
(A)    i    iii    ii    iv
(B)    iv    iii    ii    i
(C)    iii    i    iv    ii
(D)    ii    iii    iv    i   

33.    Consider a system with five processes P0 through P4 and three resource types R1, R2 and R3. Resource type R, has 10 instances, R2 has 5 instances and R3 has 7 instances. Suppose that at time T0,   the following snapshot of  the system has been taken :
       R1    R2    R3
p0    0      1      0
p1    2      0      0
p2    3      0      2
p3    2      1      1
p4    0      2      2

R1    R2    R3
7       5      3
3       2      2
9       0      2
2       2      2
4       3      3

R1    R2    R3
3       3      2
Assume that now the process P1 requests one additional instance of type R1 and two instances of resource type R3. The state resulting after this allocation will be
(A)   Ready"state     (B)    Safe state         (C)   Blocked state          (D)   Unsafe state

34.    Match the following   
    List -1                                                   List - II
a. Contiguous allocation    i.    This scheme supports very large file sizes.
b. Linked allocation          ii.    This allocation technique supports only sequential files.
c. Indexed allocation        iii.    Number of disks required to access file is minimal.
d. Multi- level indexed      iv.   This technique suffers from maximum wastage of space in storing pointers.
         a       b  c   d
(A)   iii      iv   ii    i
(B)   iii      ii    iv   i
(C)   i       ii    iv   iii
(D)   i       iv   ii    iii

35.    Which of the following commands will output "onetwothree" ?
(A)    for val; do echo-n $val; done < one two three
(B)    for one two three; do echo-n-; done
(C)    for n in one two three; do echo-n $n; done
(D)    for n in one two three {echo -n $n}

36.    Mergesort makes two recursive calls. Which statement is true after these two recursive calls finish, but before the merge step ?
(A)    The array elements form a heap.
(B)    Elements in each half of the array are sorted amongst themselves.
(C)    Elements in the first half of the array are less than or equal to elements in second half of the array.
(D)    All of the above

37.    A text is made up of the characters
α, β, γ, δ, σ and a with the probability 0.12, 0.40, 0.15, 0.08 and 0.25 respectively. The optimal coding technique will have the average length of
(A)    1.7    (B)    2.15
(C)    3.4    (D)    3.8

38.    Searching for an element in the hash table requires
Ο(1) time for the time, whereas for direct addressing it holds for the time.
(A)    worst-case, average
(B)    worst-case, worst-case
(C)    average, worst-case
(D)    best, average

39.    An algorithm is made up of 2 modules M1  and M2.  If time  complexity of modules M1 and M2 are h(n) and g(n) respectively, the time complexity of the algorithm is
(A)    min (h(n), g(n))
(B)    max (h(n), g(n))
(C)    h(n) + g(n)
(D)    h(n)*g(n)

40.    What is the maximum number of parenthesis that will appear on the stack at any one time for parenthesis expression given by
(( )     ( ( ) )     ( ( ) ) )
(A)   2        (B)   3
(C)   4        (D)   5

41. Match the following :
    List -1                                  List - II
a. Automatic storage class   i.     Scope of the variable is global.
b. Register storage class      ii.    Value of the variable persists between different function calls.
c. Static storage class          iii.   Value stored in memory and local to the block in which the variable is defined.
d. External storage class      iv.   Value stored in CPU registers.
Codes :       
        a      b    c    d
(A)   iii     iv    i    ii
(B)   iii      iv    ii    i
(C)   iv      iii    ii    i
(D)   iv      iii    i    ii

42.    When we pass an array as an argument to a function, what actually gets passed ?
(A)    Address of the array
(B)    Values of the elements of the array
(C)    Base address of the array
(D)    Number of elements of the array

43.    While (87) printf("computer"); The above C statement will
(A)    print "computer" 87 times
(B)    print "computer" 0 times
(C)    print "computer" 1 times
(D)    print "computer" infinite times

44.    A friend function can be used to
(A)    avoid arguments between classes.
(B)    allow  access  to classes whose source code is unavailable.
(C)    allow  one  class  to  access  an unrelated class.
(D)    None of the above

45.    Which of the following is the correct value returned to the operating system upon the successful completion of a program ?
(A)    0
(B)    1
(C)    -1
(D)    Program do not return a value.

46.    Manager's salary details are hidden from the employee. This is called as
(A)    Conceptual level data hiding
(B)    Physical level data hiding
(C)    External level data hiding
(D)    Local level data hiding

47.    Which of the following statements is false ?
(A)    Any relation with two attributes is in BCNF.
(B)    A relation in which every key has only one attribute is in 2NF.
(C)    A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in 3NF relation.
(D)    A prime attribute can be transitively dependent on a key in BCNF relation.

48.    A clustering  index  is  created when
(A)    primary key is declared and ordered
(B)    no key ordered
(C)    foreign key ordered
(D)    there is no key and no order

49.    Let R ={ A, B, C, D. E, F} be a relation schema with the following dependencies C
F, E A, EC D, A B
Which of the following is a key for R ?
(A)    CD    (B)    EC
(C)    AE    (D)    AC

50.    Match the following :
      List-I                                  List- II
a.    DDL                             i.   LOCK TABLE
b.    DML                            ii. COMMIT
c.    TCL                             iii. Natural Difference
d.    BINARY Operation     iv. REVOKE
         a       b     C    d
(A)    ii       i      iii     iv
(B)    i       ii      iv      iii
(C)    iii     ii        i     iv
(D)    iv       i      ii     iii