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Tuesday, December 3, 2013

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -III Dec2013

UGC NET December 2013 Solved question paper -III

1. If the primal Linear Programming problem has unbounded solution, then it's dual problem will have
(A) feasible solution
(B) alternative solution
(C) no feasible solution at all
(D) no bounded solution at all

2. Given the problem to maximize
f(x), X = (xl,x2,.......xn) subject to m number of inequality constraints.
g(X)<bi, i= 1,2.....m
including the non-negativity constraints x > 0.
Which of the following conditions is a Kuhn-Tucker necessary condition for a local maxima at x' ?
3. The following Linear Programming problem has :
Max    Z = x1 + X2
Subject to x1 -x2 >0
           3x1 - x2 > 0
         and x1,x2 > 0
(A)    Feasible solution
(B)    No feasible solution
(C)    Unbounded solution
(D)    Single point as solution

4. Given a flow graph with 10 nodes, 13 edges and one connected components, the number of regions
and the number of predicate (decision) nodes in the flow graph will be
(A)    4,5    (B)    5,4
(C)    3,1    (D)    13,8

5. Function points can be calculated by
(A) UFP * CAF
(B) UFP * FAC
(C) UFP * Cost
(D) UFP * Productivity

6. Match the following :
List -1            List-II
a. Data coupling       i. Module A and Moduie B have shared data
b. Stamp coupling     ii. Dependency between modules is based on the fact they communicate by only passing of data
c. Common coupling   iii. When complete data structure is passed from one module to another
d. Content coupling   iV. When the control is passed from one module to the middle of another
Codes :   
    a       b    c        d
(A)   iii       ii    i       iv
(B)    ii       iii    i       iv
(C)    ii       iii    iv       i
(D)   iii      ii    iv       i

7. A process which defines a series of tasks that have the following four primary objectives is known as
1. to identify all items that collectively define the software configuration.
2. to manage changes to one or more of these items.
3. to facilitate the construction of different versions of an application.
4. to ensure that software quality is maintained as the configuration evolves over time.
(A) Software Quality Management Process
(B) Software Configuration Management Process
(C) Software Version Management Process
(D) Software Change Management Process

8. One weakness of boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning is
(A) they are not effective.
(B) they do not explore combinations of input circumstances.
(C) they explore combinations of input circumstances.
(D) none of the above.

9. Which once of the following is not a software myth?
(A) Once we write the program and get it to work, our job is done.
(B) Project requirements continually change, but change can be easily accommodated because software is flexible.
(C) If we get behind schedule, we can add more pro grammers and catch up.
(D) If an organization does not understand how to control software projects internally, it will invariably struggle when it outsources software projects
10. Match the following with respect to relationship between objects and classes:
List -I         List -II
a. State diagram      i. Useful for both abstract modelling and for designing actual program
b. Object diagram    ii. Describes object classes
c. Class diagram       iii. Useful for documenting test cases
d. Instance  diagram     iv. Describing the behaviour of a single class of objects.
Codes :
    a   b   c  d
(A) iv  i   ii iii
(B) ii  iii iv i
(C) iii iv  ii i
(D) ii  iv  i  iii

11. Match the following style rules for reusability:
List -I                         List -II
a. Keep  methods coherent     i. Write a method to get the last element of a list
b. Keep  methods  small           ii. Maintain parallel structure when possible
c. Keep  methods  consistent  iii. Breaking a method methods into smaller parts
d. Provide  uniform  coverage  iv. Performs a single function or a group of closely related functions.
Codes :
    a   b   C  d
(A) iv  iii ii i
(B) ii  i   iv iii
(C) iii iv  ii i
(D) ii  iii iv i

12. Which is the protocol for performing RPCs between applications in a language and system independent way?
(A) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol (HTTP)
(B) Simple network Management Protocol (SNMP)
(C) Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP)
(D) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

13. The document that is used by XSLT to indicate, how to transform the elements of the XML document to another format is
(A) HTML page
(B) DOC type procedure
(C) Style sheet
(D) Stored procedure

14. Which of the following concepts means adding new concepts to a program as it runs ?
(A) Data hiding
(B) Dynamic loading
(C) Dynamic typing
(D) Dynamic binding

15. Which of the following correctly describes overloading of functions?
(A) Virtual polymorphism
(B) Transient polymorphism
(C) Ad-hoc polymorphism
(D) Pseudo polymorphism

16. Match the following with respect to programming languages :
    List -1    List - II
a. Structured Language             i. JAVA
b. Non-structured Language      ii. BASIC
c. Object Oriented Language    iii. PASCAL
d. Interpreted Language        iv. FORTRAN
Language Codes :
    a   b    c   d
(A) iii iv   i   ii
(B) iv  iii  ii  i
(C) ii  iv   i   iii
(D) ii  iii  iv  i

17. The compiler converts all operands upto the type of the largest operand is called
(A) Type Promotion
(B) Type Evaluation
(C) Type Conversion
(D) Type Declaration

18. C++ actually supports the following two complete dynamic systems :
(A) One defined by C++ and the other not defined by C.
(B) One  defined  by  C   and  one specific to C++
(C) Both are specific to C++
(D) Both of them are improvements of C

19. Important advantage of using new and delete operators in C++ is
(A) Allocation of memory
(B) Frees the memory previously allocated
(C) Initialization of memory easily
(D) Allocation of memory and frees the memory previously allocated.

20. Match the following control strategies of prolog :
    List -1    List - II
a. Forward movement        i. Variable can be done with a constant, another variable or a function.
b. Unification           ii. The entire conjunctive goal is executed.
c. Deep backtracking     iii. Previous sub goal to find alternative solutions.
d. Shallow backtracking   iv.Chooses sub goal with possible unifier.
Codes :
     a   b    c    d
(A) iv   i    ii   iii
(B) ii   iv   i    iii
(C) iii  i    iv   ii
(D) ii   iii  iv   i

21. Given the following statements :
S1 : The grammars S -> asb | bsa |s2 | a and S —> asb | bsa | a are not equivalent.
S2 : The grammars S —» ss | sss |asb | bsa | A, and S —> ss | asb | bsa | X are equivalent.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) Both S, and S2 are correct.
(C) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(D) Both S1 and S2 are not correct.

22. What are the final values of Q1 and Q0 after 4 clock cycles, if initial values are 00 in the sequential circuit shown below :


(A) 11      (B) 10
(C) 01        (D) 00

23. High level knowledge which relates to the use of sentences in different contexts and how the context affect the meaning of the sentences ?
(A) Morphological
(B) Syntactic
(C) Semantic
(D) Pragmatic

24. The objective of__________procedure is to discover at least one________that causes two literals to match.
(A) unification, validation
(B) unification, substitution
(C) substitution, unification
(D) minimax, maximum

25. If h* represents an estimate of the cost of getting from the current node N to the goal node and h represents actual cost of getting from the current node to the goal node, then A* algorithm gives an optimal solution if
(A) h* is equal to h
(B) h* overestimates h
(C) h* underestimates h
(D) none of these

26. The mean-end analysis process centers around the detection of differences between the current state and goal state. Once such a difference is isolated, an operator that can reduce the difference must be found. But perhaps that operator can not be applied to the current state. So a sub-problem of getting to a state in which it can be applied is set up. The kind of backward chaining in which operators are selected and then sub goals are set up to establish the precondition of operators is called
(A) backward planning
(B) goal stack planning
(C) operator sub goaling
(D) operator overloading

27. In alpha-beta pruning, _________is used to cut off the search at maximizing level only and _________is  used  to cut off the search at minimizing level only.
(A) alpha, beta
(B) beta, alpha
(C) alpha, alpha
(D) beta, beta

28. If A and B are two fuzzy sets with membership functions
UA(x) = {0.2,0.5,0.6,0.1,0.9}
UB(x) = {0.1,0.5,0.2,0.7,0.8}
Then the value of uAnB will be
(A) {0.2,0.5,0.6,0.7,0.9}
(B) {0.2,0.5,0.2,0.1,0.8}
(C) {0.1,0.5,0.6,0.1,0.8}
(D) {0.1,0.5,0.2,0.1,0.8}

29. The height h(A) of a fuzzy set A is defined as
h(A) = sup A(x)
x e A
Then the fuzzy set A is called normal when
(A) h(A) = 0    (B) h(A) < 0
(C) h(A) = 1    (D) h(A) < I

30. An artificial neuron receives n inputs Xp x2,...., x with weights Wj, w2,...., wn attached   to   the   input   links.   The weighted sum________is computed to be passed on to a non-linear filter <|> called activation function to release the output.
(A) Ewi             (B) Exi
(C) EWi + EXi   (D) EWi.xi

31. Consider the formula in image processing
RD = 1-1/cr
Where CR = n1/n2
CR is  called  as  compression  ratio n1 and n2 denotes the number of information carrying units in two datasets that represent the same information. In this situation RD is called as relative________of the first data set.
(A) Data Compression
(B) Data Redundancy
(C) Data Relation
(D) Data Representation

32. Find the false statement:
(A) In Modern Cryptography, symmetric key algorithms use same key both for Encryption and Decryption.
(B) The symmetric cipher DES (Data Encryption Standard) was widely used in the industry for security product.
(C) The    AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) cryptosystem allows variable key lengths of size 56 bits and 124 bits.
(D) Public key algorithms use two different keys for Encryption and Decryption.

33. The message 11001001 is to be transmitted using the CRC polynomial x3 + 1 to protect it from errors. The message that should be transmitted is are
(A) 110010011001
(B) 11001001
(C) 110010011001001
(D) 11001001011

34. _________comparisons are necessary in the worst case to find both the maximum and minimum of n numbers.
(A) 2n-2
(B) n + floor (lg n) - 2
(C) floor(3n/2)-2
(D) 2lg n-2

35. Let A and B be two n x n matrices. The efficient algorithm to multiply the two matrices has the time complexity
(A) O(n3)        (B) O(n281)
(C) O(n267)    (D) O(n2)

36. The recurrence relation T(n) = m T(n/2) tan2 is satisfied by
(A) O(n2)    (B) O(nlgm)
(C) O(n2lgn)    (D) O(n lgn)

37. The longest common subsequence of the sequences X = <A, B, C, B, D, A,B> and Y = <B, D, C, A, B, A> has length
(A) 2    (B) 3
(C) 4    (D) 5

38. Assuming there are n keys and each key is in the range [0, m - 1].The run time of bucket sort is
(A) O(n)    (B) O(nlgn)
(C) O(nlgm)    (D) O(n + m)
39. A_______complete subgraph and a subset of vertices of a___________graph G = (V, E) are a clique and a vertex cover respectively.
(A) minimal, maximal
(B) minimal, minimal
(C) maximal, maximal
(D) maximal, minimal

40. Pumping lemma for context-free languages states :
Let L be an infinite context free language. Then there exists some positive integer m such that any w e L with |w| > m can be decomposed as
w = uv xy Z with |vxy|____________ and |vy|_________such that uvz xyz Z E L for all z = 0,1,2,3,.......
(A) < m, < 1  (B) < m, > 1
(C) > m,<l    (D) > m, > 1

41. The Grcibach normal form grammar for the language L = {an bn + 1 | n > 0} is
(A) S -> a SB, B -> bB | ^
(B) S -> a SB, B -> bB | b
(C) S -> a SB | b, B -> b
(D) S -> a Sb | b

42. Given the following statements :
s1 : Every context-sensitive language L is recursive.
S2 : There exists a recursive language that is not context sensitve.
Which statement is correct ?
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.
43. What is the bit rate for transmitting uncompressed 800 x 600 pixel colour frames with 8 bits/pixel at 40 frames/second ?
(A) 2.4 Mbps
(B) 15.36 Mbps
(C) 153.6 Mbps
(D) 1536 Mbps

44. In IPV 4, the IP address 200.200.200.200 belongs to
(A) Class A    (B) Class B
(C) Class C    (D) Class D

45. Which layer of OS I reference model is responsible for decomposition of messages and generation of sequence numbers to ensure correct re-composition from end to end of the network ?
(A) Physical    (B) Data-link
(C) Transport    (D) Application

46. A client-server system uses a satellite network, with the satellite at a height of 40,000 kms. What is the best-case delay in response to a request ? (Note that the speed of light in air is 3.00,000 km/second).
(A) 133.33 m sec
(B) 266.67 m sec
(C) 400.00 m sec
(D) 533.33 m sec

47. The start and stop bits are used in serial communication for
(A) error detection
(B) error correction
(C) synchronization
(D) slowing down the communication

48. ________is a type of transmission impairment in which the signal looses strength due to the resistance of the transmission medium.
(A) Attenuation  (B) Distortion
(C) Noise     (D) Decibel

49.    Match the following :
List-I                List - II
a. Indexed Addressing               i. is not used when an operand is moved from memory into a register or from a register to memory.
b. Direct Addressing                 ii. Memory address is computed    by adding up two registers plus an (optional) offset.
c. Register Addressing               iii. Addressing memory by giving a register plus a content offset.
d. Base-Indexed Addressing      iv. can only be used to access global variables whose address is known at compile time.
Codes :
    a    b   c    d
(A) ii    i   iv   iii
(B) ii    iv  i    iii
(C) iii    iv  i    ii
(D) iii    i   iv   ii

50. Which of the following is a design criteria for instruction formats ?
(A) The size of instructions
(B) The number of bits in the address fields
(C) The sufficient space in the instruction format to express all the operations desired.
(D) All of these


51. Synchronization is achieved timing device called a_______which generates a periodic train of ________.
(A) clock generator, clock pulse
(B) master generator, clock pulse
(C) generator, clock
(D) master clock generator, clock pulse


52. Serial access memories are useful in applications where
(A) Data consists of numbers
(B) Short access time is required
(C) Each stored word is processed differently.
(D) None of these

53. What   will   be   the   output   of  the following logic diagram ?

(A) x OR   y
(B) x AND  y
(C) x XOR  y
(D) X XNOR y

54. The essential difference between traps and interrupts is
(A) traps are asynchronous and interrupts are synchronous with the program.
(B) traps are synchronous and interrupts are asynchronous with the program.
(C) traps are synchronous and interrupts are asynchronous with the I/O devices.
(D) None of these.

55. Consider the following ER diagram


The   minimum   number   of   tables required to represent M, N, P, R1, R2, is
(A)    2    (B)    3
(C)    4    (D)    5

56. Consider the following schemas :
Branch   = (Branch-name,   Assets, Branch-city)
Customer = (Customer-name, Bankname, Customer-city)
Borrow   = (Branch-name, loan number, customer account-number)
Deposit  = (Branch-name, Account-number, Customer-name, Balance)
Using relational Algebra, the Query that finds customers who have balance more than 10,000 is________
(A) ^customer-name (@ balance > 10000(Deposit))
(B) @customer-name (@ balance > 10000(Deposit))
(C) ^customer-name (@ balance > 10000(Borrow))
(D) @customer-name (^balance > 10000(Borrow))

57. Find the false statement:
(A) The relationship construct known as the weak relationship type was defined by Dey, Storey & Barron (1999)
(B) A weak relationship occurs when two relationship types are linked by either Event-Precedent sequence or Condition-Precedent sequence.
(C) Conceptual model is not accurate representation of "Universe of interest".
(D) Ternary, Quaternary and Quintary relationships are shown through a series of application scenario's and vignette's.

58. Consider the table
Student (stuid, name, course, marks). Which   one  of the  following  two queries is correct to find the highest marks student in course 5 ?
Q.l. Select S.stuid From student S Where not exists (select * from student e where e course = '5' and e marks > s marks)
Q.2. Select s.stu.id From student S Where s • marks > any (select   distinct   marks   from student S where s • course = 5)
(A) Q.l
(B) Q.2
(C) Both Q. 1 and Q. 2
(D) Neither Q. 1 nor Q. 2

59. Armstrong (1974) proposed systematic approach to derive functional dependencies. Match the following w.r.t.functional dependencies :
List-I
a. Decomoposition rule          i. If X -> Y and Z -> W then {X,Z}->{Y,W}
b. Union rule                         ii. If X -> Y and {Y, W}->Z then {X, W} -> Z
c. Com-position rule              iii. lf X -> Y and X -> Z then X -> {Y,Z}
d. Pseudo transitivity rule      iv. If X -> {Y, Z} then X -> Y and X -> Z
Codes :
     a    b    c     d
(A) iii      ii   iv    i  
(B) i     iii  iv    ii
(C) ii    i    iii   iv
(D) iv    iii  i     ii

60. Match the following :
    List -I            List - II
a. Secondary Index                   i.  Functional Dependency
b. Non-                                     ii. B-Tree procedural Query Language   
c. Closure of set of Attributes    iii. Relational Algebraic Operation
d. Natural JOIN                        iv. Domain Calculus
Codes :   
    a    b    c       d
(A) i    ii    iv      iii
(B) ii   i    iv      iii
(C) i    iii    iv      ii
(D) ii   iv    i       iii

61. Which of the following is not true with respect to a trackball and/or spaceball ?
I.   A trackball is a two dimensional positioning device while as a spaceball provides six degrees of freedom.
II.  Unlike the trackball a spaceball does not actually move.
III. A trackball is a three dimensional positioning device while as a spaceball provides six degrees of freedom.
(A)  I & II    (B)    II & III
(C)  II only    (D)    III only


62.Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true ?
I.   Two successive translations are additive.
II.  Two successive rotations are additive.
III. Two successive scaling operations are multiplicative.
(A) I and II
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) All the above


63. Given below are three basic rules:
I. Squash and Stretch
II.Slow-in and Slow-out
III.To stage the action properly These rules are applied in case of
(A) Rendering
(B) Morphing
(C) Animation
(D) All the above


64. Which of the following points lies on the  same  side  as  the  origin,  with reference to the line 3x + 7y = 2 ?
(A) (3,0)    (B) (1,0)
(C) (0.5,0.5)    (D) (0.5,0)

65. The transformation matrix required for conversion of CMY colour model to RGB colour model is given as :


66. What steps shall be required to rotate an object about the point P1(as shown in fig. 1) and its placement such that what was at P1 is now reduced and is at P2 (as shown in fig. 2) ?

I.   Translate Pl to origin
II.  Scale as required
III. Rotate
IV.  Translate to the final position P2.
(A) I,II and III
(B) II,III and IV
(C) I,III & IV
(D) All of the above

67. In Unix, how do you check that two given strings a and b are equal ?
(A) test $a -eq $b
(B) test Sa -equal $b
(C) test $a = Sb
(D) Sh -C test $a = = $b

68. In windows 2000 operating system all the processor-dependent code is isolated in a dynamic link library called
(A) NTFS file system
(B) Hardware abstraction layer
(C) Microkernel
(D) Process Manager

69. To place a sound into a word document, following feature of windows is used :
(A) Clip board
(B) Task switching
(C) C Win App
(D) OLE

70. Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) is
(A) a cache-memory in which item to be searched is compared one-by-one with the keys.
(B) a cache-memory in which item to be searched is compared with all the keys simultaneously.
(C) an associative memory in which item to be searched is compared one-by-one with the keys.
(D) an associative memory in which item to be searched is compared with all the keys simultaneously.

71. Simplest way of deadlock recovery is
(A) Roll back
(B) Preempt resource
(C) Lock one of the processes
(D) Kill one of the processes

72. The directory structure used in Unix file system is called
(A) Hierarchical directory
(B) Tree structured directory
(C) Directed acyclic graph
(D) Graph structured directory

73. Which statement is not true about process O in the Unix operating system ?
(A) Process O is called init process.
(B) Process O is not created by fork system call.,
(C) After forking process 1, process O becomes swapper process.
(D) Process O is a special process created when system boots.

74. Which of the following commands would return processed of sleep command ?
(A) Sleep 1 and echo $?
(B) Sleep 1 and echo $#
(C) Sleep 1 and echo $x
(D) Sleep 1 and echo $!

75. Possible thread states in Windows 2000 operating system include :
(A) Ready, running and waiting
(B) Ready, standby, running, waiting, transition and terminated
(C) Ready, running, • waiting, transition and terminated
(D) Standby, running, transition and terminated

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -II Dec2013

UGC NET December 2013 Solved question paper -II


1. When data and acknowledgement are sent in the same frame, this is called as
(A) Piggy packing
(B) Piggy backing
(C) Back packing
(D) Good packing

2. Encryption and Decryption is the responsibility of Layer.
(A) Physical
(B) Network
(C) Application
(D) Datalink

3. An analog signal carries 4 bits in each signal unit. If 1000 signal units are sent per second, then baud rate and bit rate of the signal are and
(A) 4000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps
(B) 2000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps
(C) 1000 bauds \ sec & 500 bps
(D) 1000 bauds \ sec & 4000 bps

4. The VLF and LF bauds use propagation for communication.
(A) Ground          (B) Sky
(C) Line of sight   (D) Space

5. Using the RSA public key crypto system, if p = 13, q = 31 and d = 7, then the value of e is
(A) 101  (C) 105
(B) 103  (D) 107

6. FAN IN of a component A is defined as
(A) Number of components that can call or pass control to component A.
(B) Number of components that are called by component A.
(C) Number of components related to component A.
(D) Number of components dependent on component A.

7. The relationship of data elements in a module is called
(A) Coupling
(B) Modularity
(C) Cohesion
(D) Granularity

8. Software Configuration Management is the discipline for systematically controlling
(A) the changes due to the evolution of work products as the project proceeds.
(B) the changes due to defects (bugs) being found and then fixed.
(C) the changes due to requirement changes
(D) all of the above

9. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering ?
(A) Requirement elicitation
(B) Requirement analysts
(C) Requirement design
(D) Requirement documentation

10. Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is called
(A) Alpha testing
(B) Beta testing
(C) Regression testing
(D) None of the above

11. The student marks should not be greater than 100. This is
(A) Integrity constraint
(B) Referential constraint
(C) Over-defined constraint
(D) Feasible constraint

12. GO  BOTTOM  and  SKIP-3 commands are given one after another in a database file of 30 records. It shifts the control to
(A) 28th record      (B) 27th record
(C) 3rd record       (D) 4th record

13. An ER Model includes
I.   An ER diagram portraying entity types.
II.  Attributes for each entity type
III. Relationships among entity types.
IV.  Semantic integrity constraints that reflects the business rules about data not captured in the ER diagram.
(A) I, II, III & IV   (B) I&IV
(C) I, II & IV        (D) I & III

14. Based on the cardinality ratio and participation associated with a relationship type, choose either the Foreign Key Design, the Cross Referencing Design or Mutual Referencing Design.
(A) Entity    (B) Constraints
(C) Rules    (D) Keys

15. Data Integrity control uses  
(A) Upper and lower limits on numeric data.
(B) Passwords to prohibit unauthorised access to files.
(C) Data dictionary to keep the data
(D) Data dictionary to find last access of data

16. What does the following declaration mean ?
int (*ptr) [10];
(A) ptr is an array of pointers of 10 integers.
(B) ptr is a pointer to an array of 10 integers.
(C) ptr is an array of 10 integers.
(D) none of the above.

17. Which of the following has compilation error in C ?
(A) int n = 32 ;
(B) char ch = 65 ;
(C) float f= (float) 3.2;
(D) none of the above

18. Which of the following operators can not be overloaded in C+ + ?
(A) *     (B) + =
(C) = =     (D) ::

19. allows to create classes which are derived from other classes, so that they automatically include some of its "parent's" members, plus its own members.
(A) Overloading
(B) Inheritance
(C) Polymorphism
(D) Encapsulation

20. The correct way to round off a floating number x to an integer value is
(A) y = (int)(.r + 0.5)
(B) y = int (x + 0.5)
(C) y = (int)*+ 0.5
(D) y = (int)((im> + 0.5)

21. What is the value of the postfix expression ?
a b c d + - * (where a = 8, b = 4, c = 2 and d = 5)
(A) -3/8    (B) -8/3
(C) 24        (D) -24

22. If the queue is implemented with a linked list, keeping track of a front pointer and a rear pointer, which of these pointers will change during an insertion into a non-empty queue ?
(A) Neither of the pointers change
(B) Only front pointer changes
(C) Only rear pointer changes
(D) Both of the pointers changes

23. _________ is often used to prove the correctness of a recursive function.
(A) Diagonaliization
(B) Communitivity
(C) Mathematical Induction
(D) Matrix Multiplication

24. For any B-tree of minimum degree t > 2, every node other than the root must have atleast _________ keys and every   node can have at, most ________ keys.
(A) t-1,2t+1
(B) t+1,2t+1
(C) t-1,2t-1
(D) t+1,2t-1

25. Given two sorted list of size 'm' and 'n' respectively. The number of comparison needed in the worst case
by the merge sort algorithm will be
(A) m x n
(B) max (m, n)
(C) min (m, n)
(D) m + n - 1

26. Given the following statements :
S, :    SLR uses follow information to guide reductions. In case of LR and LALR parsers, the look-aheads are associated with the items and they make use of the left context available to the parser.
S2 : LR grammar is a larger sub¬class of context free grammar as compared to that SLR and LALR grammars.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.

27. The context  free grammar for the language
L = {an bm | n < m + 3, n > 0, in > 0} is
(A)   S -» aaa A; A -» aAb | B, B -> Bb | X ,;,  
(B)    S -* aaaA|X, A -> aAb | B, B -*Bb f X
(C)    S -> aaaA | aa A | X, A -> aAb | B, B ~* Bb| k
(D)    S -> aaaA | aa A | aA | X, A -> aAb i B, B -» Bb | X

28. Given the following statements :
S1 :    If L is a regular language then the language {uv | u e L, v e LR} is also regular.
S2 :    L = {wwR}| is regular language.
Which of the following is true ?
(A) S1 is not correct and S2 is not correct.
(B) S1 is not correct and S2 is correct.
(C) S1 is correct and S2 is not correct.
(D) S1 is correct and S2 is correct.

29. The process of assigning load addresses to the various parts of the program and adjusting the code and data in the program to reflect the assigned addresses is called    ____________
(A) Symbol resolution
(B) Parsing
(C) Assembly
(D) Relocation

30. Which of the following derivations does a top-down parser use while parsing an input string ? The input is scanned from left to right.
(A) Leftmost derivation
(B) Leftmost derivation traced out in reverse
(C) Rightmost derivation traced out in reverse
(D) Rightmost derivation

31. The dual of a Boolean expression is obtained by interchanging
(A) Boolean sums and Boolean products
(B) Boolean sums and Boolean products or interchanging 0's and 1 's
(C) Boolean sums and Boolean products and interchanging 0's & 1's
(D) Interchanging 0's and 1's

32. Given that (292) 10 = (1204)^ in some number system x. The base x of that number system is
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) None of the above

33. The sum of products expansion for the function
F(x, y, z) = (x + y)z is given as
(A) xyz + xyz + xyz
(B) xyz + xyz + xyz
(C) xyz + xyz + xyz
(D) xyz + xyz + xyz

34. Let P(m, n) be the statement
    "m divides n" where the universe of    discourse for both the variables is the set of positive integers.  Determine the truth values of each of the following propositions:
    I:   VmVnP(m,n),
    II. 3m Vn P(m, n)
(A) Both I and II are true
(B) Both I and II are false
(C) I - false & II - true
(D) I - true & II - false

35. Big - 0 estimate for
    f(x) = (x + 1) log(x2 + 1) + 3x2 is given as
(A) O(xlogx)
(B) O(x2)
(C) O(x3)
(D) O(x2logx)

36. How many edges are there in a forest of t-trees containing a total of n vertices ?
(A) n+1
(B) n-t
(C) n*t
(D) nt

37. Let f and g be the functions from the set of integers to the set integers defined by
f(x) = 2x + 3 and g(x) = 3x + 2
Then the composition of f and g and g and f is given as
(A) 6x + 7,  6x + 11
(B) 6x + 11, 6x + 7
(C) 5x + 5, 5x + 5
(D) None of the above

38. If n and r are non-negative integers and n > r, then p(n + 1, r) equals to
(A) P(n,r)(n + 1) / (n + 1 - r)
(B) P(n,r)(n+1) / (n - 1 + r)
(C) p(n,r)(n-l) / (n + 1 - r)
(D) p(n,r)(n + l) / (n + 1 + r)

39. A graph is non-planar if and only if it contains a subgraph homomorphic to
(A) K3,2 or K5       (B) K3,3 and K6
(C) K3,3 or K5       (D) K2,3 and K5

40. Which of the following statements are true ?
I.   A circuit that adds two bits, producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called half adder.
II.  A circuit that adds two bits, producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called full adder.
III. A circuit that adds two bits and a carry bit producing a sum bit and a carry bit is called full adder.
IV.  A device that accepts the value of a Boolean variable as input and produces its complement is called an inverter.
(A) I & II    (B) II & III
(C) I,II,III    (D) I,III & IV

41 Active X controls are Pentium binary programs that can be embedded in ____________
(A) Word pages
(B) URL pages
(C) Script pages
(D) Web pages

42.    Match the following :
List-I                                                       List - II
a. Wireless Application Environment      i.    HTTP      
b. Wireless Transaction Protocol           ii.    IP
c. Wireless Datagram Protocol             iii    Scripts
d. Wireless                                          iv.    UDP
Codes :      
     a     b     c    d
(A) ii    iv     i    iii
(B) iv    iii     ii    i
(C) iv    iii     i    ii
(D) iii    i     iv    ii

43. Which of the following is widely used inside the telephone system for long-haul data traffic ?
(A) ISDN
(B) ATM
(C) Frame Relay
(D) ISTN

44. The document standards for EDI were first developed by large business house during the 1970s and are now under the control of the following standard organisation :
(A) ISO
(B) ANSI
(C) ITU-T
(D) IEEE

45. Electronic Data Interchange Software consists of the following four layers :
(A) Business application, Internal format conversion, Network translator, EDI envelope
(B) Business application, Internal format conversion, EDI translator, EDI envelope
(C) Application layer, Transport layer, EDI translator, EDI envelope
(D) Application layer, Transport layer, IP layer, EDI envelope

46. Consider a preemptive priority based scheduling algorithm based on dynamically changing priority.
Larger priority number implies higher priority. When the process is waiting for CPU in the ready queue
(but not yet started execution), its priority changes at a rate a = 2. When it starts running, its priority changes at a rate b = 1. All the processes are assigned priority value 0 when they enter ready queue. Assume that the following processes want to execute :
Process      Arrival  Service
ID          Time    Time
PI        0     4
P2        1     1
P3        2     2
P4        3     1
The time quantum q = 1. When two processes want to join ready queue simultaneously, the process which has not executed recently is given priority. The finish time of processes PI, P2, P3 and P4 will respectively be
(A) 4, 5, 7 and 8
(B) 8, 2, 7 and 5
(C) 2, 5, 7 and 8
(D) 8, 2, 5 and 7

47. The virtual address generated by a CPU is 32 bits. The Translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) can hold
total 64 page table entries and a 4-way set associative (i.e. with 4- cache lines in the set). The page size
is 4 KB. The minimum size of TLB tag is
(A) 12 bits
(B) 15 bits
(C) 16 bits
(D) 20 bits

48. Consider a disk queue with request for input/output to block on cylinders
98, 183, 37, 122, 14, 124, 65, 67
in that order. Assume that disk head is initially positioned at cylinder 53 and moving towards cylinder number 0. The total number of head movements using Shortest Seek Time First (SSTF) and SCAN algorithms are respectively
(A) 236 and 252 cylinders
(B) 640 and 236 cylinders
(C) 235 and 640 cylinders
(D) 235 and 252 cylinders

49. How much space will be required to store the bit map of a 1.3 GB disk with 512 bytes block size ?
(A) 332.8 KB
(B) 83.6 KB
(C) 266.2 KB
(D) 256.6 KB

50. Linux operating system uses
(A) Affinity Scheduling
(B) Fair Preemptive Scheduling
(C) Hand Shaking
(D) Highest Penalty Ratio Next

UGC NET Solved Paper - I Dec2013

UGC NET December 2013 Solved question paper - I

1. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013 ?
(A) Distance Education Council  (DEC)
(B) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(C) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(D) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

2. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment  and Accreditation Council ?
1. It is an autonomous institution.
2. It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
3. It is located in Delhi.
4. It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes :
(A)   l and 3        (B)    l and 2
(C)   l,2 and 4     (D)   2,3 and 4

3. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction
(B) Appellate Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction 
(D) Writ Jurisdiction 

4. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. There are seven Union Territories in India.
2. Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
3. One Union Territory has a High Court.
4. One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A)    1 and 3 only     (B)   2 and 4 only (C)   2, 3 and 4 only  (D)   1, 2, 3 and 4

5. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission ?
1. The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
3. The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of  Rs 25,000/-
4. It can punish an errant officer.
 Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1,2 and 4
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4

6. Who among the following conducted  the CNN-IBN - The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States ?
(A) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(B) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(C) CNN and IBN
(D) CNN, IBN and The Hindu

7. In certain code TEACHER is written as VGCEJGT. The code of CHILDREN will be
(A)   EKNJFTGP  (B)  EJKNFTGP    (C)  KNJFGTP     (D)  None of these

8. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes. The cost of one apple is Rs 7 whereas that of a mango is Rs 5/-. If the person has Rs 38, the number of apples he can buy is
(A)    1    (B)    2
(C)    3    (D)   4

9.  A man pointing to a lady said, "The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife". The lady is related to the man as
(A) Mother's sister
(B) Grand mother
(C) Mother-in-law
(D) Sister of Father-in-law

10. In this series 6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7,1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each ?
(A)   4  (B)    5
(C)   6  (D)    8

11. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(A)    85           (B)    60
(C)    70           (D)   65

12. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as  Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(A) 6 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 12 years
(D) 16 years

13. Which of the following is a social network ?
(A) amazon.com
(B) eBay
(C) gmail.com
(D) Twitter

14.The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as
(A) Universe
(B) Inference
(C) Sampling design
(D) Statistics


Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 15 to 20 :
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Center for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (1CCROM) was established with UNESCO's assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organization with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long wav to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps over emphasize. The effort has to be broad-based : It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilized by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are essentially Eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.

15. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(A) after the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property.
(B) after training the specialists in the field.
(C) after extending UNESCO's assistance to the educational institutions.
(D) after ASI's measures to protect the monuments

16. The inter-govemment organization was appreciated because of
(A) increasing number of members to 126.
(B) imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise.
(C) consistent investment in conservation.
(D) its proactive role in renovation and restoration


17. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(A) Financial support from the Government of India.
(B) Non-governmental organizations role and participation in the conservation movement.
(C) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation.
(D) Archaeological Survey of India's meaningful assistance. 

18. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of  protected monuments. As per given the total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to
(A)    10 percent        (B)    11 percent        (C)    12 percent    (D)   13 percent

19. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage ?
(i)   There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii)   Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii)  Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) (i) (ii), (iii ,(iv) 
(B) (i). (ii) (iv) 
(C) (i), (ii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv)

20. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full  form of INTACH is
(A) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage.
(B) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(C) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(D) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage

21. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a  teacher should
(A) keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(B) punish   those    causing disturbance.
(C) motivate to teach those causing disturbance.
(D) not bother of what is happening in the class.

22. Effective teaching is a function of
(A) Teacher's satisfaction.
(B) Teacher's honesty  and commitment.
(C) Teacher's making students learn and understand.
(D) Teacher's liking for professional excellence.

23. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(A) Acquisition of skills
(B) Modification of behaviour
(C) Personal adjustment
(D) Inculcation of knowledge

24. Arrange the following teaching  process in order:
(i) Relate  the present knowledge with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(B) (ii), (i). (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(D) (iv), (i), (v). (ii), (iii)

25.CIET stands for
(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(C) Central Institute for Education Technology
(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques.

26. Teacher's  role  at  higher  education level is to
(A) provide information to students.
(B) promote self learning in students.
(C) encourage healthy competition among students.
(D) help students to solve their problems.

27.The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularised by
(A) German Social Scientists
(B) American Philosophers
(C) British Academicians
(D) Italian Political Analysts

28.The sequential operations in scientific research are
(A) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalisation, Theorisation
(B) Generalisation, Co-variation, Theorisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations
(C) Theorisation, Generalisation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Co-variation
(D) Elimination of Spurious Relations, Theorisation,Generalisation, Co-variation.

29. In sampling, the lottery method is used for
(A) Interpretation
(B) Theorisation
(C) Conceptualisation
(D) Randomisation

30. Which is the main objective of research ?
(A) To review the literature
(B) To summarize what is already known
(C) To get an academic degree
(D) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts

31.Sampling error decreases with the
(A) decrease in sample size
(B) increase in sample size
(C) process of randomization
(D) process of analysis

32. The principles of fundamental research are used in
(A) action research
(B) applied research
(C) philosophical research
(D) historical research

33. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(A) Passive audience
(B) Active audience
(C) Positive audience
(D) Negative audience

34. Classroom   communication   can   be described as
(A) Exploration
(B) Institutionalisation
(C) Unsignified
(D) Discourse

35. Ideological codes shape our collective
(A) Productions
(B) Perceptions
(C) Consumptions
(D) Creations

36. In communication, myths but are have power
(A) uncultural.  
(B) insignificant.
(C) imprecise.
(D) unpreferred

37. The first multi- lingual news agency of India was
(A) Samachar
(B) API
(C) Hindustan Samachar
(D) Samachar Bharati

38.Organisational communication can also be equated with
(A) intra-personal communication.
(B) inter-personal communication.
(C) group communication.
(D) mass communication.

39. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, the relationship between them is called
(A) Contradictory
(B) Contrary
(C) Sub-contrary
(D) Sub-alternation

40. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does.Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali. Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi. Who can speak and follow English, Hindi and Bengali ?
(A) Archana
(B) Bulbul
(C) Ananya
(D) Krishna

41.A stipulative definition may be said to be
(A) Always true
(B) Always false
(C) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(D) Neither true nor false

42.When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise/premises conclusively, the argument is called
(A) Circular argument
(B) Inductive argument
(C) Deductive argument
(D) Analogical argument

43.Saturn and Mars are planets like the earth. They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the earth is.What type of argument is contained in the above passage ?
(A)    Deductive     (B)    Astrological
(C)    Analogical    (D)   Mathematical

44. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i)     All saints are religious, (major)
(ii)    Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes :
(A) All saints are honest.
(B) Some saints are honest.
(C) Some honest persons are religious.
(D) All religious persons are honest

Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer questions from 45 to 48 based on this table.



Number of Foreign Tourist Arrivals
2007
2008
2009
Western Europe
1686083
1799525
1610086
North America
1007276
1027297
1024469
South Asia
982428
1051846
982633
South East Asia
303475
332925
348495
East Asia
352037
355230
318292
West Asia
171661
215542
201110
Total FTAs in India
5081504
5282603
5108579

45.Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) South East Asia

46. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009 ?
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) West Asia

47.out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(A) Western Europe
(B) South East Asia
(C) East Asia
(D) West Asia

48. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(A) Western Europe
(B) North America
(C) South Asia
(D) East Asia

49. The post-industrial society is designated as
(A) Information society
(B) Technology society
(C) Mediated society
(D) Non-agricultural society

50. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(A) Commercial communication
(B) Military purposes
(C) Personal interaction
(D) Political campaigns

51. Internal communication within institutions is done through
(A) LAN
(B) WAN
(C) EBB
(D) MMS

52. Virtual reality provides
(A) Sharp pictures
(B) Individual audio
(C) Participatory experience
(D) Preview of new films

53. The first virtual university of India came up in
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu

54. Arrange   the   following   books   in chronological   order  in  which  they appeared. Use the code given below:
(i)   Limits to Growth
(ii)  Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv)  Resourceful Earth
Codes :
(A) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(B) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(C) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

55. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification ?
(A) Africa
(B) Asia
(C) South America
(D) North America

56. "Women are closer to nature than men." What kind of perspective is this ?
(A)    Realist    (B)  Essentialist    (C)  Feminist      (D) Deep ecology

57. Which one of the following is not a matter a global concern in the removal of tropical forests ?
(A) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer
(B) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(C) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content and reflectivity.
(D) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.

58. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man-environment interaction is one of the
following :
(A) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(B) Urban-industrial Growth Oriented Approach
(C) Rural-agricultural Growth Oriented Approach
(D) Watershed Development Approach

59. The major source of the pollutant gas,carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(A) Thermal power sector
(B) Transport sector
(C) Industrial sector
(D) Domestic sector

60. In a fuel cell driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(A)   Methane      (B)    Hydrogen
(C)    LPG           (D)   CNG  

Sunday, June 30, 2013

UGC NET Computer Science Solved Paper -III June2013

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1. The Software Maturity Index (SMI) is defined as
SMI = [Mf -(Fa + Fc + Fd )] / Mf   Where
M= the number of modules in the current release.
F= the number of modules in the current release that have been added.
F= the number of modules in the current release that have been changed.
Fd = the number of modules in the current release that have been deleted.
The product begins to stabilize when
(A) SMI approaches  1
(B) SMI approaches  0
(C) SMI approaches -1
(D) None of the above

2. Match the following:
a. Watson- Felix model intensity                        i. Failure
b. Quick-Fix model                                          ii. Cost estimation
c. Putnam  resource allocation model                iii. Project planning
d. Logarithmetic- Poisson Model                     iv. Maintenance
Codes:
       a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) i ii iv iii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) ii iv iii i

3. ________is a process model that removes defects before they can precipitate serious hazards.
(A) Incremental model
(B) Spiral model
(C) Clean room software engineering
(D) Agile model

4. Equivalence partitioning is a ______ method that divides the input domain of a program into classes of data from which test cases can be derived.
(A) White-box testing
(B) Black-box testing
(C) Orthogonal amIy testing
(D) Stress testing

5. The following three golden rules
(i) Place the user in control
(ii) Reduce the user's memory load
(iii) Make the interface consistent are for
(A) User satisfaction
(B) Good interface design
(C) Saving system's resources
(D) None of these

6.Software safety is a __________ activity that focuses on the identification and assessment of potential hazards that may affect software negatively and cause an entire system to fail.
(A) Risk mitigation, monitoring and management
(B) Software quality assurance
(C) Software cost estimation
(D) Defect removal efficiency

7. The "PROJECT' operator of a relational algebra creates a new table that has always
(A) More columns than columns in original table
(B) More rows than original table
(C) Same number of rows as the original table
(D) Same number of columns as the original table

8. The employee information of an Organization is stored in the relation:
Employee (name, sex, salary, deptname) Consider the following SQL query
Select deptname from Employee Where sex = 'M' group by deptname
having avg (salary) > {select avg (salary) from Employee}
Output of the given query corresponds to
(A) Average salary of employee more than average salary of the organization.
(B) Average salary less than average salary of the organization.
(C) Average salary of employee equal to average salary of the organization.
(D) Average salary of male employees in a department is more than average salary of the organization.

9. For a database relation R(a, b, c, d) where the domains of a. b, c. d include only the atomic values. The
functional dependency a à c, b à d holds in the following relation
(A) In INF not in 2NF
(B) In 2NF not in 3NF
(C) In 3NF
(D) In INF

10. Match the following:
a. RAID 0          i. Bit interleaved parity
b. RAID 1         ii. Non redundant stripping
c. RAID 2        iii. Mirrored disks
d. RAID 3       iv. Error correcting codes
Codes :
      a b c d
(A) iv i ii iii
(B) iii iv i ii
(C) iii i iv ii
(D) iii ii iv i
Note: Wrong options given by UGC NET

11. The golden ratio φ and its conjugate  φ both satisfy the equation
(A) x3-x-l = 0
(B) x3+x-l = 0   
(C) x2-x-l = 0
(D) x2+x-l = 0

12. The solution of recurrence relation
      T(n) = 2T{floor ( n)) + logn is
{A) O(n log log logn)
(B) O(n log logn)
(C) O(log logn)
(D) O(logn log logn)

13. In any n-clement heap, the number of nodes of height h is
(A) less than equal to [n/2h]
(B) greater than [n/2h]
(C) greater than [n/2h+1]
(D) less than equal to [n/2h+1]

14. A data file of 1,00,000 characters contains only the characters g-l, with the frequencies as indicated in table:


g
h
i
j
k
l
Frequency in thousand
45
13
12
16
9
5
using the variable-length code by Huffman codes, the file can be encoded with
(A) 2,52,000 hits
(B) 2,64,000 bits
(C) 2,46,000 hits
(D) 2,24,000 bits


15. A vertex cover of an undirected graph G(V, E) is a subset V1 ⊆ V vertices such that
(A) Each pair of vertices in  V1connected by an edge
(B) If (u, v) ∈ E then u ∈  V1 and v ∈ V1
(C) If (u, v) ∈ E then u ∈ V1 or v ∈ V1
(D) All pairs of vertices in V1 are not connected by an edge

16. In a fully connected mesh network with n devices, there are ____ physical channels to link all devices.
(A) n(n-1)/2             (B) n(n+1)/2
(C) 2n                     (D) 2n+1

17. The baud rate of a signal is 600 baud/second. If each signal unit carries 6 bits, then the bit rate of a signal is __________
(A) 3600
(B) 100
(C) 6/600
(D) None of the above
Hint: baudrate * bit =bit rate

18. Match the following:
a. Data link layer                              i. Flow  control
b. Network layer                             ii. Node to node delivery
c. Transport layer                            iii. Mail services
d. Application layer                         iv  Routing
Codes:
       a b c d
(A) ii i iv iii
(B) ii iv i iii
(C) ii i iii iv
(D) ii iv iii i

19. An image is 1024*800 pixels with 3 bytes/pixel. Assume the image is uncompressed. How long does it take to transmit it over a 10 -Mbps Ethernet?
(A) 196.6 seconds
(B) 19.66 seconds
(C) 1.966 seconds
(D) 0.1966 seconds
Hint: [1024*800*3*8]/10*1000*1000   converting to bits

20. The ______ measures the relative strengths of two signals or a signal at two different points.
(A) frequency
(B) attenuation
(C) throughput
(D) decibel

21. Which one of the following media is multidrop?
(A) Shielded Twisted pair cable
(B) Unshielded Twisted pair cable
(C) Thick Coaxial cable
(D) Fiber Optic cable

22. What is the baud rate of the standard 10 Mbps Ethernet?
(A) 10 megabaud    (B) 20 megabaud
(C) 30 megabaud    (D) 40 megabaud

23. At any iteration of simplex method, if ∆j (Zj - Cj)  corresponding to any non·basic variable Xj is obtained as zero, the solution under the test is
(A) Degenerate solution
(B) Unbounded solution
(C) Alternative solution
(D) Optimal solution

24. A basic feasible solution to a m-origin, n-destination transportation problem is said to be _______ if the number of positive allocations are less than m + n - 1.
(A) degenerate
(B) non-degenerate
(C) unbounded
(D) unbalanced

25. The total transportation cost in an initial basic feasible solution to the following transportation problem
using Vogel's Approximation method is



W1
W2
W3
W4
W5
Supply
F1
4
2
3
2
6
8
F2
5
4
5
2
1
12
F3
6
5
4
7
3
14
Demand
4
4
6
8
8

(A) 76       (B) 80  (C) 90       (D) 96

26. An actor in an animation is a small  program invoked _______ per frame to detennine the characteristics of some object in the animation.
(A) once    (B) twice      (C) 30 times       (D) 60 times

27. Bresenham line drawing algorithm is attractive because it uses
(A) Real arithmetic only
(B) Integer arithmetic only
(C) Floating point arithmetic
(D) Real and integer arithmetic

28. The refresh rate above which a picture stops flickering and fuses into a steady image is called ________
(A) Crucial fusion frequency
(B) Current frequency fusion
(C) Critical fusion frequency
(D) Critically diffused frequency

29. In homogenous coordinate system (x, y. z) the points with z = 0 are called
(A) Cartesian points
(B) Parallel points
(C) Origin point
(D) Point at infinity

30. If 40 black lines interleaved with 40 white lines can be distinguished across one inch, the resolution is
(A) 40 line-pairs per inch
(B) 80 line-pairs per inch
(C) 1600 lines per inch
(D) 40 lines per inch

31. Images tend to be very large collection of data. The size of memory required for a 1024 by 1024 image in which the colour of each pixel is represented by a n-bit number, (in an 8 bit machines) is
(A) n x 8 MB
(B) n/ 8MB
(C) (1024x 1024)/8MB
(D) 1024MB

31. Arrays in C language can have ____with reference to memory representation.
(A) n-subscripts
(B) two-subscripts
(C) only one subscript
(D) three subscripts only

33. Refer the points as listed below:
(a) What are the operator precedence rules?
(b) What are the operator associativity rules?
(c) What is the order of operand evaluation?
(d) Are there restrictions on operand evaluation side effects ?
Which of the above must be considered as primary design issues for arithmetic expressions?
(A) (a), (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (c) and (d)
(C) (a), (b) and (d)
(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

34. Hom clauses are special kinds of propositions which can be described as
(A) Single atomic proposition on left side.
(B) Single or multiple atomic proposition on left side.
(C) A single atomic proposition on left side and a single atomic proposition on right side.
(D) A single atomic proposition on left side or an empty left side.

35. Which of the following is/are the fundamental semantic model(s) of parameter passing?
(A) in mode
(B) out mode
(C) in-out mode
(D) all of the above

36. The grammar with production rules 
S à aSb|SS|λ    generates language L given by :
(A) L = {w ∈{a,b}*| na (w)= nb (w) and na (v) ≥ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}
(B) L = {w {a,b}*| na (w)= nb (w) and na (v) nb (v) where v is any prefix of w} 
(C) L = {w {a,b}*| na (w) nb (w) and na (v) ≥ nb (v) where v is any prefix of w} 
(D) L = {w {a,b}*| na (w)nb (w) and na (v) nb (v) where v is any prefix of w}

37. A pushdown automation M = (Q, Σ, Γ, δ, q0, z,  F) is a set to be deterministic subject to which of the following condition(s), for every q ∈ Q, a∈Σ U{ λ } and b Γ  
(s1) δ(q, a, b) contains at most  one element
(s2) if δ(q, λ, b) is not empty than δ(q, c, b) must be empty for every c Σ
(A) only s1
(B) only s2
(C) both s1 and s2
(D) neither s1 nor s2

38. For every context free grammar (G) there exists an algorithm that passes any W L(G) in number of steps proportional to
(A) |n|w|       (B) |w|        (C) |w|2        (D) |w|3 

39. Match the following:
a. Context sensitive language                  i. Deterministic finite automation
b. Regular grammar                                ii. Recursive enumerable
c. Context free grammar                        iii. Recursive language
d. Unrestricted grammar                        iv. Pushdown automation
codes:
        a   b    c   d
(A)   ii   i    iv  iii
(B)   iii  iv   i   iii
(C)   iii  i   iv   ii
(D)   ii   iv  i    iii

  40. The statements s1 and s2 are given as :
sl : Context sensitive languages are closed under intersection. concatenation, substitution and inverse homomorphism.
s2 Context free languages are closed under complementation. substitution and homomorphism.
Which of the following is correct statement?
(A) Both s1 and s2 are correct.
(B) s1 is correct and s2 is not correct.
(C) sl is not correct and s2 is correct.
(D) Both s1 and s2 are not correct.

41. Which one of the following is not an addressing mode?
(A) Register indirect
(B) Autoincrement
(C) Relative indexed
(D) Immediate operand

42. Computers can have instruction formats with
(A) only two address and three address instructions
(B) only one address and two address instructions
(C) only one address, two address .and three address instructions
(D) zero address, one address, two address and three address instructions

43. Which is not a typical program control instruction?
(A) BR   (B) JMP    (C) SHL      (D) TST

44. Interrupt which arises from illegal or erroneous use of an instruction or data is
(A) Software interrupt
(B) Internal interrupt
(C) External interrupt
(D) All of the above

45. The simplified function in product of sums of Boolean function F(W, X, Y, Z) =Σ(0, 1,2,5,8,9.10) is
(A) (W' + X') (Y' + Z') (X' + Z)
(B) (W' + X') (Y' + Z') (X' + Z')
(C) (W' + X') (Y' + Z) (X' + Z)
(D) (W' + X') (Y + Z') (X' + Z)

46. Match the following:
a. TTL          i  High component density
b. ECL         ii Low power consumption
c. MOS        iii Evolution of  "diode-transistor-logic"
d.CMOS      iv High speed digital circuits
codes:
        a   b    c   d
(A)   iii   ii    i    iv
(B)   i    iv    i    ii
(C)   iii  iv    i   ii
(D)   i   ii    iii    iv

47. Match the following:
a. Foreign keys                                  i. Domain constraint
b. Private key                                    ii. Referential integrity
c. Event control action model             iii. Encryption
d. Data security                                 iv. Trigger
codes:
        a   b    c   d
(A)   iii   ii    i    iv
(B)   ii    i    iv   iii
(C)   iii  iv    i    ii
(D)   i   ii    iii    iv

48. When an array is passed as a parameter to a function which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The function can change values in the original array.
(B) The function cannot change values in the original array.
(C) Results in compilation error.
(D) Results in runtime error

49. Suppose you want to delete the name that occurs before "Vivek"  in an alphabetical listing. Which of the following data structures shall be most efficient for this operation?
(A) Circular linked list
(B) Doubly linked list
(C) Linked list
(D) Dequeue

50. What will be the output of the following segment of the program ?
main( )
(
char *s = "hello world";
int i = 7;
Printf("%.*s", i,s);
}
(A) Syntax error
(B) hello w
(C) hello
(D) o world
Note: All the given options are wrong - output for the given c progam is %.*s

51. Trace the error:
void main()
(
int  *b, &a;
 *b=20
printf("%d, %d", a, *b)
}
(A) No error
(B) Logical error
(C) Syntax error
(D) Semantic error

52. Match the following:
a. calloc()                      i. Frees previously allocated space
b. free()                        ii. Modifies previously allocated space
c. malloc()                   iii. Allocates space for array
d. realloc()                   iv. Allocates requested size of space
codes:
        a   b    c   d
(A)   iii   i    iv    ii
(B)   iii    ii    i    iv
(C)   iii  iv    i    ii
(D)   iv   ii    iii    i

53. Binary symmetric channel uses
(A) Half duplex protocol
(B) Full duplex protocol
(C) Bit oriented protocol
(D) None ofthe above

54. Hamming distance between 100101000110 and 110111101101 is
(A) 3    (B) 4   (C) 5     (D) 6

55. Given code word 1110001010 is to be transmitted with even parity check bit. The encoded word to be transmitted for this code is
(A) 11100010101        (B) 11100010100          (C) 1110001010         (D) 111000101

56. The number of distinct binary images which can be generated from a given binary image of right M x N are
(A) M + N       (B) M x N         (C) 2M+N          (D) 2MN

57. If  f(x, y) is a digital image, then x, y and amplitude values of f are
(A) Finite
(B) Infinite
(C) Neither finite nor infinite
(D) None of the above

58. Consider the following processes with time slice of 4 milliseconds (I/O requests are ignored) :
Process                   A B C  D
Arrival time              0 1  2  3
CPU cycle               8 4  9  5
The average tum around time of these processes will be
(A) 19.25 milliseconds
(B) 18.25 milliseconds
(C) 19.5 milliseconds
(D) 18.5 milliseconds


59. A job has four pages A, B, C, D and the main memory has two page frames only. The job needs to
process its pages in following order: ABACABDBACD Assuming that a page interrupt occurs when a new page is brought in the main memory, irrespective of whether the page is swapped out or not. The number of page interrupts in FIFO and LRU page replacement algorithms are
(A) 9 and 7      (B) 7 and 6      (C) 9 and 8       (D) 8 and 6

60. Suppose S and Q are two semaphores initialized to 1. PI and P2 are two processes which are sharing resources.
P1 has statements                          P2 has statements
wait(S) ;                                          wait(Q) ;
wait(Q) ;                                         wait(S) ;
critical-                                           critical-
section1;                                        section 2;
signal(S) ;                                      signal(Q) ;
signal(Q) ;                                      signal(S) ;
Their execution may sometimes lead to an undesirable situation called
(A) Starvation
(B) Race condition
(C) Multithreading
(D) Deadlock

61. An operating system using banker's algorithm for deadlock avoidance has ten dedicated devices (of same type) and has three processes P1, P2 and P3 with maximum resource requirements of 4, 5 and 8 respectively. There are two states of allocation of devices as follows:
State I          Processes                   P1   P2    P3
                    Devices allocated        2     3      4
State 2         Processes                    P1  P2    P3
                    Devices allocated        0     2      4
Which of the following is correct?
(A) State 1 is unsafe and state 2 is safe.
(B) State I is safe and state 2 is unsafe.
(C) Both, state I and state 2 are safe.
(D) Both, state I and state 2 are unsafe.

62. Let the time taken to switch between user mode and kernel mode of execution be T1 while time taken to switch between two user processes be T2. Which of the following is correct?
(A) T1 <T2
(B) T1 >T2
(C) T1 = T2
(D) Nothing can be said about the relation between T1 and T2

63. Working set model is used in memory management to implement the concept of
(A) Swapping
(B) Principal of Locality
(C) Segmentation
(D) Thrashing

64. A UNIX file system has 1 KB block size and 4-byte disk addresses. What is the maximum file size if the inode contains ten direct block entries, one single indirect block entry, one double indirect block entry and one triple indirect block entry ?
(A) 30 GB (B) 64 GB  (C) 16 GB (D) 1 GB
Explanation:   

65. A thread is usually defined as a light weight process because an Operating System (OS) maintains smaller data structure for a thread than for a process. In relation to this, which of the following statement is correct?
(A) OS maintains only scheduling .and accounting information for each thread.
(B) OS maintains only CPU registers for each thread.
(C) OS does not maintain a separate stack for each thread.
(D) OS does not maintain virtual memory state for each thread.

66. The versions of windows operating system like windows XP and window Vista uses following file system:
(A) FAT-16
(B) FAT-32
(C) NTFS (NT File System)
(D) All of the above

67. Which one of the following is a correct implementation of the meta-predicate "not" in PROLOG (Here G
represents a goal) ?
(A) not(G):- !, call(G), fail. not(G).
(B) not(G):- cal1(G), !, fail.not(G).
(C) not(G):- cal1(G), fail, !. not(G).
(D) not(G):- cal1(G), fail. not(G):- !.

68. Which one of the following is not an informed search technique?
(A) Hill climbing search
(B) Best first search
(C) A* search
(D) Depth first search

69. If we convert
∃u ∀v ∀x ∃y (Pf(u),v,x,y) --->  Q(u,v,y)) to ∀v ∀x (Pf(a),v,x, g(v,x)) --> Q(a,v,g(v,x))) 
This process is known as
(A) Simplification
(B) Unification
(C) Skolemization
(D) Resolution

70. Given two jugs of capacities 5 litres and 3 litres with no measuring markers on them. Assume that there
is endless supply of water. Then the minimum number of states to measure 4 litres water will be
(A) 3 (B) 4  (C) 5 (D) 7

71. The map colouring problem can be solved using which of the following technique?
(A) Means·end analysis
(B) Constraint satisfaction
(C) AO' search
(D) Breadth first search

72. Which of the following is a knowledge representation technique used to represent knowledge about stereotype situation?
(A) Semantic network
(B) Frames
(C) Scripts
(D) Conceptual Dependency

73. A fuzzy set A on R is ________ iff A(λx1 + (1- λ)x2) ≥  min [A(x1),A(x2)]
for all x1, x2 R and all λ [0,1], where min denotes the minimum operator
(A)Support
(B)α-cut
(C)Convex
(D)Concave

74. If A and B are two fuzzy sets with membership functions

μA(x) = {0.6,0.5,0.1,0.7, 0.8}
μB(x) = {0.9,0.2,0.6, 0.8, 0.5}
Then the value of  μAUB(x)will be
(A) {0.9, 0.5, 0.6, 0.8, 0.8}
(B) {0.6, 0.2, 0.1, 0.7, 0.5}
(C) {0.1, 0.5, 0.4, 0.2, 0.2}
(D) {0.1, 0.5, 0.4, 0.2, 0.3}

75. Consider a single perception with weights as given in the following figure:
The above perception can solve
(A) OR problem
(B) AND problem
(C) XOR problem
(D) All of the above