UGC NET Solved Paper I June2008

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1.    The teacher has been glorified by the phrase "Friend, philosopher and guide" because :
(A)    He has to play all vital roles in the context of society
(B)    He transmits the high value of humanity to students
(C)    He is the great reformer of the society
(D)    He is a great patriot

2.    The most important cause of failure for teacher lies in the area of :
(A)    inter personal relationship
(B)    lack of command over the knowledge of the subject
(C)    verbal ability
(D)    strict handling of the students

3.    A teacher can establish rapport with his students by :
(A)    becoming a figure of authority
(B)    impressing students with knowledge and skill
(C)    playing the role of a guide
(D)    becoming a friend to the students

4.    Education is a powerful instrument of :
(A)    Social transformation    (B)     Personal transformation
(C)    Cultural transformation    (D)    All the above

5.    A teacher's major contribution towards the maximum self-realization of the student is affected through :
(A)    Constant fulfilment of the students' needs
(B)    Strict control of class-room activities
(C)    Sensitivity to students' needs, goals and purposes
(D)    Strict reinforcement of academic standards

6.    Research problem is selected from the stand point of :
(A)    Researcher's interest    (B)    Financial support
(C)    Social relevance    (D)    Availability of relevant literature

7.    Which one is called non-probability sampling ?
(A)    Cluster sampling    (B)     Quota sampling
(C)    Systematic sampling    (D)    Stratified random sampling

8.    Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in :
(A)    Survey method    (B)     Historical studies
(C)    Experimental studies    (D)    Normative studies

9.      Field-work based research is classified as :
(A)    Empirical    (B)     Historical
(C)    Experimental    (D)    Biographical

10.    Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to study the prevalence of AIDS amongst male and female in India in 1976, 1986, 1996 and 2006 ?
(A)    Cluster sampling    (B)    Systematic sampling
(C)    Quota sampling    (D)    Stratified random sampling

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :

The fundamental principle is that Article 14 forbids class legislation but permits reasonable classification for the purpose of legislation which classification must satisfy the twin tests of classification being founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons or things that are grouped together from those that are left out of the group and that differentia must have a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved by the Statute in question. The thrust of Article 14 is that the citizen is entitled to equality before law and equal protection of laws. In the very nature of things the society being composed of unequals a welfare State will have to strive by both executive and legislative action to help the less fortunate in society to ameliorate their condition so that the social and economic inequality in the society may be bridged. This would necessitate a legislative application to a group of citizens otherwise unequal and amelioration of whose lot is the object of state affirmative action. In the absence of the doctrine of classification such legislation is likely to flounder on the bed rock of equality enshrined in Article 14. The Court realistically appraising the social and economic inequality and keeping in view the guidelines on which the State action must move as constitutionally laid down in Part IV of the Constitution evolved the doctrine of classification. The doctrine was evolved to sustain a legislation or State action designed to help weaker sections of the society or some such segments of the society in need of succour. Legislative and executive action may accordingly be sustained if it satisfies the twin tests of reasonable classification and the rational principle correlated to the object sought to be achieved.The concept of equality before the law does not involve the idea of absolute equality among human beings which is a physical impossibility. All that Article 14 guarantees is a similarity of treatment contra-distinguished from identical treatment. Equality before law means that among equals the law should be equal and should be equally administered and that the likes should be treated alike. Equality before the law does not mean that things which are different shall be as though they are the same. It ofcourse means denial of any special privilege by reason of birth, creed or the like. The legislation as well as the executive government, while dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations must of necessity have the power of making special laws, to attain any particular object and to achieve that object it must have the power of selection or classification of persons and things upon which such laws are to operate.

11.    Right to equality, one of the fundamental rights, is enunciated in the constitution under Part III, Article :
(A)    12    (B)     13
(C)    14    (D)    15

12.    The main thrust of Right to equality is that it permits :
(A)    class legislation
(B)    equality before law and equal protection under the law
(C)    absolute equality
(D)    special privilege by reason of birth

13.    The social and economic inequality in the society can be bridged by :
(A)    executive and legislative action
(B)    universal suffrage
(C)    identical treatment
(D)    none of the above

14.    The doctrine of classification is evolved to :
(A)    Help weaker sections of the society
(B)    Provide absolute equality
(C)    Provide identical treatment
(D)    None of the above

15.    While dealing with diverse problems arising out of an infinite variety of human relations, the government
(A)    must have the power of making special laws
(B)    must not have any power to make special laws
(C)    must have power to withdraw equal rights
(D)    none of the above

16.    Communication with oneself is known as :
(A)    Group communication
(B)    Grapevine communication
(C)    Interpersonal communication
(D)    Intrapersonal communication

17.    Which broadcasting system for TV is followed in India ?
(A)    NTSE    (B)     PAL
(C)    SECAM    (D)    NTCS

18.    All India Radio before 1936 was known as :
(A)    Indian Radio Broadcasting
(B)    Broadcasting Service of India
(C)    Indian Broadcasting Service
(D)    All India Broadcasting Service

19.    The biggest news agency of India is :
(A)    PTI    (B)     UNI
(C)    NANAP    (D)    Samachar Bharati

20.    Prasar Bharati was launched in the year :
(A)    1995    (B)     1997    (C)    1999    (D)    2001

21.    A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter while measure based upon a sample is known as:
(A)    Sample parameter
(B)    Inference
(C)    Statistics
(D)    None of these

22.    The importance of the correlation co-efficient lies in the fact that :
(A)    There is a linear relationship between the correlated variables.
(B)    It is one of the most valid measure of statistics.
(C)    It allows one to determine the degree or strength of the association between two variables.
(D)    It is a non-parametric method of statistical analysis.

23.    The F-test:
(A)    is essentially a two tailed test.
(B)    is essentially a one tailed test.
(C)    can be one tailed as well as two tailed depending on the hypothesis.
(D)    can never be a one tailed test.

24.    What will be the next letter in the following series :
DCXW, FGVU, HGTS   
(A)    AKPO    (B)     JBYZ    (C)    JIRQ    (D)    LMRS

25. The following question is based on the diagram given below. If the two small circles represent formal class-room education and distance education and the big circle stands for university system of education, which figure represents the university systems.

Ans: (B)

26.    The statement, 'To be non-violent is good' is a :
(A)    Moral judgement    (B)     Factual judgement
(C)    Religious judgement    (D)    Value judgement

27.    Assertion (A) :   Man is a rational being.
             Reason (R):   Man is a social being.
(A)    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)    (A) is true but (R) is false
(D)    (A) is false but (R) is true

28.    Value Judgements are:
(A)    Factual Judgements
(B)    Ordinary Judgements
(C)    Normative Judgements
(D)    Expression of public opinion

29.    Deductive reasoning proceeds from :
(A)    general to particular
(B)    particular to general
(C)    one general conclusion to another general conclusion
(D)    one particular conclusion to another particular conclusion

30.    AGARTALA is written in code as 14168171, the code for AGRA is :
(A)    1641    (B)     1416    (C)    1441    (D)    1461

31.    Which one of the following is the most comprehensive source of population data ?
(A)    National Family Health Surveys
(B)    National Sample Surveys
(C)    Census
(D)    Demographic Health Surveys

32.    Which one of the following principles is not applicable to sampling ?
(A)    Sample units must be clearly defined
(B)    Sample units must be dependent on each other
(C)    Same units of sample should be used throughout the study
(D)    Sample units must be chosen in a systematic and objective manner

33.    If January 1st, 2007 is Monday, what was the day on 1st January 1995 ?
(A)    Sunday    (B)     Monday
(C)    Friday    (D)    Saturday

34.    Insert the missing number in the following series :
         4       16     8       64     ?        256
(A)    16    (B)     24    (C)    32    (D)    20

35.    If an article is sold for Rs. 178 at a loss of 11%; what would be its selling price in order to earn a profit of 11%?
(A)    Rs. 222.50    (B)     Rs. 267    (C)    Rs. 222    (D)    Rs. 220

36.    WYSIWYG - describes the display of a document on screen as it will actually print:
(A)    What you state is what you get
(B)    What you see is what you get
(C)    What you save is what you get
(D)    What you suggest is what you get

37.    Which of the following is not a Computer language ?
(A)    PASCAL    (B)     UNIX
(C)    FORTRAN    (D)    COBOL

38.    A key-board has at least:       
(A)    91 keys    (B)    101 keys
(C)    111 keys    (D)    121 keys

39.    An E-mail address is composed of :       
(A)    two parts    (B)    three parts
(C)    four parts    (D)    five parts

40.    Corel Draw is a popular :       
(A)    Illustration programme    (B)    Programming language
(C)    Text programme    (D)    None of the above

41.    Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following ranges :
(A)    l-2KHz    (B)     100-500 Hz
(C)    10-12 KHz    (D)    13-16 KHz
Note: 2 - 5 khz is most sensitive

42.    Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise ?
(A)    decible    (B)     Hz    (C)    Phon    (D)    Watts/mP

43.    If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable yield :
(A)    is equal to half the carrying capacity.
(B)    is equal to the carrying capacity.
(C)    depends on growth rates.
(D)    depends on the initial population.

44.    Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon :
(A)    high temperature    (B)     strong wind action
(C)    heavy rainfall    (D)    glaciation

45.    Structure of earth's system consists of the following :
         Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer.
         List-I (Zone)            List-II (Chemical Character)
(a)     Atmosphere        (i)    Inert gases
(b)     Biosphere           (ii)    Salt, fresh water, snow and ice
(c)     Hydrosphere      (iii)    Organic substances, skeleton matter
(d)     Lithosphere        (iv)    Light silicates
Codes :           
         (a)     (b)     (c)    (d)       
(A)    (ii)     (iii)    (i)    (iv)       
(B)    (i)      (iii)    (ii)    (iv)       
(c)    (ii)      (i)      (iii)   (iv)       
(D)    (iii)    (i)      (ii)    (iv)       

46.     NAAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of :
(A)    ICSSR    (B)     CSIR
(C)    AICTE    (D)    UGC

47.    National Council for Women's Education was established in :
(A)    1958    (B)     1976    (C)    1989   (D)    2000

48.    Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi ?
(A)    Indian Council of Cultural Relations
(B)    Indian Council of Scientific Research
(C)    National Council of Educational Research and Training
(D)    Indian Institute of Advanced Studies

49.    Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in :
(A)    Administration    (B)     Policy-making
(C)    Finance    (D)    Curriculum development

50.    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below :
         List-I (Institutions)                              List-II (Locations)
(a)     Dr. Hari Singh Gour University           (i)    Mumbai
(b)     S.N.D.T. University                           (ii)    Baroda
(c)     M.S. University                                 (iii)    Jodhpur
(d)     J.N. Vyas University                         (iv)    Sagar
Codes :       
         (a)     (b)     (c)     (d)       
(A)   (iv)     (i)      (ii)      (iii)      
(B)    (i)      (ii)     (ui)    (iv)       
(C)    (iii)    (i)      (ii)     (iv)       
(D)    (ii)     (iv)    (i)      (iii)       

UGC NET Solved Paper I June2009

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome

1.    Good evaluation of written material should not be based on :
(A)    Linguistic expression
(B)    Logical presentation
(C)    Ability to reproduce whatever is read
(D)    Comprehension of subject

2.    Why do teachers use teaching aid ?
(A)    To make teaching fun-filled
(B)    To teach within understanding level of students
(C)    For students' attention
(D)    To make students attentive

3.    Attitudes, concepts, skills and knowledge are products of :
(A)    Learning    (B)     Research   (C)    Heredity    (D)    Explanation

4.    Which among the following gives more freedom to the learner to interact ?
(A)    Use of film
(B)    Small group discussion
(C)    Lectures by experts
(D)    Viewing country-wide classroom programme on TV

5.    Which of the following is not a product of learning ?
(A)    Attitudes    (B)     Concepts (C)    Knowledge    (D)    Maturation

6.    How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced ?
(A)    Through its impartiality    (B)     Through its reliability
(C)    Through its validity    (D)    All of these

7.    Action-research is :
(A)    An applied research
(B)    A research carried out to solve immediate problems
(C)    A longitudinal research
(D)    All the above

8.    The basis on which assumptions are formulated :
(A)    Cultural background of the country
(B)    Universities
(C)    Specific characteristics of the castes
(D)    All of these

9.    Which of the following is classified in the category of the developmental research ?
(A)    Philosophical research    (B)     Action research
(C)    Descriptive research    (D)    All the above

10.    We use Factorial Analysis :
(A)    To know the relationship between two variables
(B)    To test the Hypothesis
(C)    To know the difference between two variables
(D)    To know the difference among the many variables

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :
While the British rule in India was detrimental to the economic development of the country, it did help in starting of the process of modernizing Indian society and formed several progressive institutions during that process. One of the most beneficial institutions, which were initiated by the British, was democracy. Nobody can dispute that despite its many shortcomings, democracy was and is far better alternative to the arbitrary rule of the rajas and nawabs, which prevailed in India in the pre-British days.

However, one of the harmful traditions of British democracy inherited by India was that of conflict instead of cooperation between elected members. This was its essential feature. The party, which got the support of the majority of elected members, formed the Government while the others constituted a standing opposition. The existence of the opposition to those in power was and is regarded as a hallmark of democracy.
In principle, democracy consists of rule by the people; but where direct rule is not possible, it's rule by persons elected by the people. It is natural that there would be some differences of opinion among the elected members as in the rest of the society.
Normally, members of any organizations have differences of opinion between themselves on different issues but they manage to work on the basis of a consensus and they do not normally form a division between some who are in majority and are placed in power, while treating the others as in opposition. The members of an organization usually work on consensus. Consensus simply means that after an adequate discussion, members agree that the majority opinion may prevail for the time being. Thus persons who form a majority on one issue and whose opinion is allowed to prevail may not be on the same side if there is a difference on some other issue. It was largely by accident that instead of this normal procedure, a two party system came to prevail in Britain and that is now being generally taken as the best method of democratic rule. Many democratically inclined persons in India regret that such a two party system was not brought about in the country. It appears that to have two parties in India – of more or less equal strength - is a virtual impossibility. Those who regret the absence of a two-party system should take the reasons into consideration. When the two party system got established in Britain, there were two groups among the rules (consisting of a limited electorate) who had the same economic interests among themselves and who therefore formed two groups within the selected members of Parliament. There were members of the British aristocracy (which landed interests and consisting of lord, barons etc) and members of the new commercial class consisting of merchants and artisans. These groups were more or less of equal strength and they were able to establish their separate rule at different times.

Answer the following questions :
11.    In pre-British period, when India was ruled by the independent rulers :
(A)    Peace and prosperity prevailed in the society
(B)    People were isolated from political affairs
(C)    Public opinion was inevitable for policy making
(D)    Law was equal for one and all

12.    What is the distinguishing feature of the democracy practiced in Britain ?
(A)    End to the rule of might is right.
(B)    Rule of the people, by the people and for the people.
(C)    It has stood the test of time.
(D)    Cooperation between elected members.

13.    Democracy is practiced where :
(A)    Elected members form a uniform opinion regarding policy matter.
(B)    Opposition is more powerful than the ruling combine.
(C)    Representatives of masses.
(D)    None of these.

14.    Which of the following is true about the British rule in India ?
(A)    It was behind the modernization of the Indian society.
(B)    India gained economically during that period.
(C)    Various establishments were formed for the purpose of progress.
(D)    None of these.

15.    Who became the members of the new commercial class during that time ?
(A)    British Aristocrats    (B)     Lord and barons
(C)    Political Persons    (D)    Merchants and artisans

16.    Which one of the following Telephonic Conferencing with a radio link is very popular throughout the world ?
(A)    TPS    (B)     Telepresence
(C)    Video conference    (D)    Video teletext

17.    Which is not 24 hours news channel ?
(A)    NDTV24x7    (B) ZEE News
(C)    Aajtak    (D) Lok Sabha channel
 
18.    The main objective of F.M. station in radio is :
(A)    Information, Entertainment and Tourism
(B)    Entertainment, Information and Interaction
(C)    Tourism, Interaction and Entertainment
(D)    Entertainment only

19.    In communication chatting in internet is :
(A)    Verbal communication    (B)     Non verbal communication
(C)    Parallel communication    (D)    Grapevine communication

20.    Match List-I with List-II and selec List-I    t the correct answer using the codes gh List-II
              (Artists)                    (Art)
(a)     Pandit Jasraj         (i)      Hindustani vocalist
(b)     Kishan Maharaj    (ii)     Sitar
(c)     Ravi Shankar        (iii)    Tabla
(d)     Udai Shankar       (iv)    Dance
Codes :   
        (a)     (b)     (c)     (d)   
(A)   (i)      (ii)     (iii)    (iv)   
(B)    (i)      (iii)    (iv)    (ii)   
(C)    (i)      (iii)    (ii)     (iv)   
(D)    (iii)    (ii)     (i)      (iv)   

21.    Insert the missing number in the following :
         3, 8, 18, 23, 33, ?, 48
(A)    37    (B)    40    (C)    38 (D)   45

22.    In a certain code, CLOCK is written as KCOLC. How would STEPS be written in that code?
(A)    SPEST    (B)     SPSET    (C)    SPETS    (D)    SEPTS

23.    The letters in the first set have a certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship mark the right choice for the second set : BDFH : OMKI : : GHIK : ?
(A)    FHJL    (B)     RPNL    (C)    LNPR    (D)    LJHF
Note: The answer for the question should be TQNL 

24.    What was the day of the week on 1st January 2001 ?
(A)    Friday    (B)     Tuesday (C)    Sunday    (D)    Wednesday
Note: Above answers are wrong it should be Monday

25.    Find out the wrong number in the sequence. 52, 51, 48, 43, 34, 27, 16
(A)    27    (B)     34    (C)    43    (D)    48

26.    In a deductive argument conclusion is :
(A)    Summing up of the premises
(B)    Not necessarily based on premises
(C)    Entailed by the premises
(D)    Additional to the premises

27.    'No man are mortal' is contradictory of :
(A)    Some man are mortal    (B)     Some man are not mortal
(C)    All men are mortal        (D)    No mortal is man

28.    A deductive argument is valid if:
(A)    premises are false and conclusion true
(B)    premises are false and conclusion is also false
(C)    premises are true and conclusion is false
(D)    premises are true and conclusion is true

29.    Structure of logical argument is based on :
(A)    Formal validity             (B)     Material truth
(C)    Linguistic expression    (D)    Aptness of examples

30.    Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex.  One man is facing South.  Which direction are the ladies facing to ?
(A)    East and West    (B)     North and West
(C)    South and East    (D)    None of these

Question Nos. 31 to 35 NOT FOR VISUALLY HANDICAPPED CANDIDATES
Questions 31 and 32 are based on the following venn diagram in which there are three intersecting circles representing Hindi knowing persons, English knowing persons and persons who are working as teachers. Different regions so obtained in the figure are marked as a, b, c, d, e, f and g.

                                   

31.   If you want to select Hindi and English knowing teachers, which of the following is to be selected ?
(A)    g    (B)    b    (C)    c    (D)    e

32.    If you want to select persons, who do not know English and are not teachers, which of the region is to be selected?
(A)    e    (B)     g    (C)    b    (D)    a
   
Study the following graph carefully and answer questions 33 to 35.
                                  
33.    In which year the quantity of engineering goods' exports was maximum ?
(A)    2005    (B)     2006    (C)    2004    (D)    2007

34.    In which year the value of engineering goods decreased by 50 percent compared to the previous year?
(A)    2004    (B)     2007    (C)    2005    (D)    2006

35.    In which year the quantity of exports was 100 percent higher than the quantity of previous year?
(A)    2004    (B)     2005    (C)    2006    (D)    2007

36.    What do you need to put your web pages on the www ?
(A)    a connection to internet    (B)     a web browser (C)    a web server    (D)    all of the above

37.    Which was the first company to launch mobile phone services in India ?
(A)    Essar    (B)     BPL    (C)    Hutchison    (D)    Airtel

38.    Chandrayan I was launched on 22nd October, 2008 in India from :
(A)    Bangalore    (B)     Sri Harikota        (C)    Chennai    (D)   Ahmedabad

39.    What is blog?
(A)    Online music
(B)    Intranet
(C)    A personal or corporate website in the form of an online journal
(D)    A personal or corporate Google search

40.    Which is not online Indian Matrimonial website ?
(A)    www.jeevansathi.com    (B)     www.bharatmatrimony.com
(C)    www.shaadi.com           (D)    www.u.k.singlemuslim.com

41.    Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in :
(A)    physical characteristics of the environment
(B)    biophysical characteristics of the environment
(C)    socio-economic characteristics of the environment
(D)    all the above

42.    Bog is a wetland that receives water from :
(A)    nearby water bodies    (B)     melting
(C)    rain fall only                 (D)    sea only

43.    Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earthquakes ?
(A)    Central Indian Highland    (B)     Coastal region
(C)    Himalayan region    (D)    Indian desert

44.    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
                      List-I                                                       List-II
                  (Institutes)                                                   (Cities)
(a)     Central Arid Zone Institute                             (i)    Kolkata
(b)     Space Application Centre                             (ii)    New Delhi
(c)     Indian Institute of Public Administration        (iii)    Ahmedabad
(d)     Headquarters of Indian Science Congress    (iv)    Jodhpur
Codes :       
          (a)     (b)    (c)    (d)       
(A)     (iv)    (iii)    (ii)     (i)       
(B)     (iv)    (ii)     (i)     (iii)       
(C)     (iii)    (i)     (ii)     (iv)       
(D)     (i)     (ii)     (iv)    (iii)       

45.    Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year :
(A)    2005    (B)     2004    (C)    2006    (D)    2007

46.    The Kothari Commission's report was entitled on :
(A)    Education and National Development
(B)    Learning to be adventure
(C)    Diversification of Education
(D)    Education and socialization in democracy

47.     Which of the following is not a Dualmode University ?
(A)    Delhi University    (B)     Bangalore University
(C)    Madras University    (D)    Indira Gandhi National Open University

48.    Which part of the Constitution of India is known as "Code of Administrators" ?
(A)    Part I    (B)     Part II    (C)    Part III    (D)    Part IV

49.    Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices against any act of Parliament ?
(A)    Article 371 A      (B)     Article 371 B       (C)    Article 371 C      (D)    Article 263

50.    Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance ?
(A)    Right to information    (B)     Citizens' Charter
(C)    Social Auditing    (D)    Judicial Activism

UGC NET Solved Paper I June2006

Questions along with Answers Below - Explanations are always welcome 

1.     Which of the following comprise teaching skill:
(A)    Black Board writing            (B)     Questioning
(C)    Explaining                         (D)    All the above 

2.     Which of the following statements is most appropriate?
(A)    Teachers can teach.
(B)    Teachers help can create in a student a desire to learn.
(C)    Lecture Method can be used for developing thinking.
(D)    Teachers are born.

3.     The first Indian chronicler of Indian history was:
(A)    Megasthanese       (B)    Fahiyan
(C)    Huan Tsang           (D)    Kalhan 

4.      Which of the following statements is correct?
(A)     Syllabus is a part of curriculum.
(B)     Syllabus is an annexure to curriculum.
(C)     Curriculum is the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university.
(D)     Syllabus is not the same in all educational institutions affiliated to a particular university.

 5.      Which of the two given options is of the level of understanding?
(I)      Define noun.
(II)     Define noun in your own words.
(A)    Only I       (B)     Only II       (C)    Both I and II        (D)    Neither I nor II

6.      Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society ?
(I)      to keep pace with the advancement in knowledge.
(II)     to discover new things.
(III)    to write a critique on the earlier writings.
(IV)   to systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources with objectivity.
(A)    IV, II and I (B)     I, II and III (C)    I and III      (D)    II, III and IV

7.      Match List-I (Interviews) with List-II (Meaning) and select the correct answer from the code given below:
        List - I (Interviews)                         List - II (Meaning)
(a)    structured interviews                (i)  greater flexibility approach
(b)    Unstructured interviews            (ii) attention on the questions to be answered
(c)    Focused interviews                 (iii) individual life experience
(d)    Clinical interviews                    (iv) Pre determined question
                                                     (v) non-directive 

Code:    (a)     (b)     (c)     (d)

(A)        (iv)     (i)      (ii)     (iii)

(B)        (ii)     (iv)     (i)      (iii)

(C)        (v)     (ii)     (iv)      (i)

(D)        (i)      (iii)    (v)     (iv)

8.      What do you consider as the main aim of inter disciplinary research?
(A)     To bring out holistic approach to research.
(B)     To reduce the emphasis of single subject in research domain.
(C)     To over simplify the problem of research.
(D)     To create a new trend in research methodology.

9.      One of the aims of the scientific method in research is to :
(A)     improve data interpretation               (B)    eliminate spurious relations
(C)     confirm triangulation                        (D)    introduce new variables

10.     The depth of any research can be judged by :
(A)     title of the research.
(B)     objectives of the research.
(C)     total expenditure on the research.
(D)     duration of the research.

Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15 :

The superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Parliament and State Legislatures and elections to the offices of the President and the Vice - President of India are vested in the Election Commission of India.   It is an independent constitutional authority. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324 (5) of the constitution that the chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and others), the Delhi High Court directed that information relating to Government dues owed by the candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone and transport etc. and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the election authorities under the commission.

11.    The text of the passage reflects or raises certain questions :

(A)    The authority of the commission can not be challenged.

(B)    This would help in stopping the criminalization of Indian politics.

(C)    This would reduce substantially the number of contesting candidates.

(D)    This would ensure fair and free elections.

12.     According to the passage, the Election Commission is an independent constitutional authority. 

         This is under Article No.

(A)     324     (B)  356     (C)  246    (D)  161

13.    Independence of the Commission means :

(A)    have a constitutional status.           (B)    have legislative powers.

(C)    have judicial powers.                      (D)    have political powers.

14.    Fair and free election means:

(A)    transparency                     (B)     to maintain law and order

(C)    regional considerations       (D)    role for pressure groups

15.    The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from his office under Article :

(A)    125           (B)     352          (C)    226           (D)    324 

16.    The function of mass communication of supplying information regarding the processes, issues, events and 

        societal developments is known as :

(A)    content supply       (B)     surveillance

(C)    gratification            (D)    correlation

17.    The science of the study of feedback systems in humans, animals and machines is known as:

(A)    cybernetics                       (B)    reverse communication

(C)    selectivity study                (D)    response analysis

18.    Networked media exist in inter-connected:

(A)    social environments

(B)    economic environments

(C)    political environments

(D)    technological environments 

19.    The combination of computing, telecommunications and media in a digital atmosphere is referred to as:

(A)    online communication        (B)     integrated media

(C)    digital combine                  (D)    convergence 

20.    A dialogue between a human-being and a computer programme that occurs simultaneously in various forms

        is described as:

(A)    man-machine speak           (B)   binary chat

(C)    digital talk                         (D)    interactivity 

21.    Insert the missing number:

        16/32,    15 /33,   17/31,    14/34 ?

(A)    19/35       (B)      19/30      (C)     18/35       (D)     18/30 

22.    Monday falls on 20^th March 1995.  What was the day on 3^rd November 1994? 
(A)    Thursday    (B)  Sunday   (C)  Tuesday  (D)  Saturday

 23.    The average of four consecutive even numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is:

(A)    36            (B)     32           (C)    30            (D)    28

24.    In a certain code, FHQK means GIRL.   How will WOMEN be written in the same code?

(A)    VNLDM    (B)     FHQKN    (C)    XPNFO     (D)    VLNDM

25.    At what time between 4 and 5 O'clock will the hands of a watch point in opposite directions?

(A)    45min.past4                     (B)     40 min. past 4

(C)    50 4/11 min. past 4           (D)     54 6/11 min. past 4 

26.    Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below?

         Statement:                       Most teachers are hard working.

         Conclusions:                    (I)    Some teachers are hard working.

                                (II)   Some teachers are not hard working.

(A)     Only (I) is implied

(B)     Only (II) is implied

(C)     Both (I) and (II) are implied

(D)     Neither (I) nor (II) is implied

27.    Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in Indian Parliament ?

(A)     Any MLA

(B)     Chief of Army Staff

(C)     Solicitor General of India

(D)     Mayor of Delhi

28.    Which of the following conclusions is logically valid based on statement given below ?

         Statement :                        Most of the Indian states existed before independence.

         Conclusions :                     (I)     Some Indian States existed before independence.

          (II)    All Indian States did not exist before independence.

(A)     only (I) is implied

(B)     only (II) is implied

(C)     Both (I) and (II) are implied

(D)     Neither (I) nor (II) is implied

29.    Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it:

(A)     reduces the shear strength of rocks

(B)     increases the weight of the overburden

(C)     enhances chemical weathering

(D)     is a universal solvent

30.    Direction for this question:

Given below are two statements (a) and (b) followed by two conclusions (i) and (ii). Considering the statements to be true, indicate which of the following conclusions logically follow from the given statements by selecting one of the four response alternatives given below the conclusion :

 

         Statements :                    (a)     all businessmen are wealthy.

                                                (b)          all wealthy people are hard working.

         Conclusions :                   (i)      All businessmen are hard working.

                              (ii)     All hardly working people are not wealthy

(A)    Only (i) follows

(B)    Only (ii) follows

(C)    Only (i) and (ii) follows

(D)    Neither (i) nor (ii) follows

31.    Using websites to pour out one's grievances is called :

(A)    cyber venting        (B) cyber ranting        (C)  web hate  (D)    web plea

32.    In web search, finding a large number of documents with very little relevant information is termed:

(A)    poor recall                        (B)    web crawl

(C)    poor precision rate            (D)    poor web response

33.    The concept of connect intelligence is derived from :

(A)    virtual reality                     (B)     fuzzy logic

(C)    Bluetooth technology         (D)    value added networks 

34.    Use of an ordinary telephone as an Internet applicance is called :

(A)    voice net              (B)   voice telephone

(C)    voice line             (D)    voice portal

35.    Video transmission over the Internet that looks like delayed livecasting is called :

(A)    virtual video           (B)     direct broadcast

(C)    video shift             (D)    real-time video 

36.    Which is the smallest North-east State in India ?

(A)    Tripura     (B)     Meghalaya        (C)    Mizoram      (D)    Manipur

37.    Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to :

(A)     high evaporation

(B)     sea water flooding due to tsunami

(C)     over exploitation of ground water by tube wells

(D)     seepage of sea water 

38.    While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the Arabian Sea

         because these two rivers :

(A)     Follow the slope of these rift valleys

(B)     The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west

(C)     The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west

(D)     The Indian peninsula south of the satpura ranges is tilted towards east

39.    Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta because of:

(A)    erosion of top soils by annual floods

(B)    inundation of land by sea water

(C)    traditional agriculture practices

(D)    the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland

40.    Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government of India ?

(A)    Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi

(B)    Mythic Society, Bangalore

(C)    National Bal Bhawn, New Delhi

(D)    India International Centre, New Delhi

41.    Assertion    (A) :   Aerosols have potential for modifying climate

        Reason       (R) :   Aerosols interact with both short waves and radiation

(A)    Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B)    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C)    (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D)    (A) is false, but (R) is true

42.    'SITE' stands for:

(A)    System for International technology and Engineering

(B)    Satellite Instructional Television Experiment

(C)    South Indian Trade Estate

(D)    State Institute of Technology and Engineering

43.    What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian Government for 'Conducting Research

         at Antarctic ?

(A)     Dakshin Gangotri

(B)     Yamunotri

(C)     Uttari Gangotri

(D)     None of the above

44.     Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes :

(A)     Department of Elementary Education and Literacy

(B)     Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education

(C)     Department of Women and Child Development

(D)     All the above 

45.     Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list :

(A)     With the prior permission of the President.

(B)     Only after the constitution is amended suitably.

(C)     In case of inconsistency among State legislatures.

(D)     At the request of two or more States. 

The following pie chart indicates the expenditure of a country on various sports during a particular year.  Study the pie chart and answer it Question Number 46 to 50.

46.    The ratio of the total expenditure on football to that of expenditure on hockey is :
(A)     1:15         (B)     1:1          (C)    15:1          (D)    3:20

47.    if the total expenditure on sports during the year was Rs. 1,20,000,00 how much was spent on  basket

        ball?

(A)    Rs. 9,50,000         (B)    Rs. 10,00,000

(C)    Rs. 12,00,000       (D)    Rs. 15,00,000 

48.   The chart shows that the most popular game of the country is :
(A)    Hockey    (B)     Football
(C)    Cricket     (D)    Tennis

49.   Out of the following country's expenditure is the same on :
(A)   Hockey and Tennis           (B)    Golf and Basket ball
(C)   Cricket and Football         (D)    Hockey and Golf

50.  If the total expenditure on sport during the year was Rs. 1,50,00,000 the expenditure on cricket and hockey
       together was :
(A)   Rs. 60,00,000       (B)     Rs. 50,00,000
(C)   Rs. 37,50,000       (D)    Rs. 25,00,000